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Seagull CBT0317 Lifting and Slinging equipment, Equipment and operation

Before a pre-slung tank is lifted from a vessel, what special safety check should be made? Select the ONE best answer.
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Choose the ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘Pre-use checks of lifting equipment are intended…
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Choose the ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘Pre-use checks of lifting equipment…
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How does a double wrap choker hitch assist when using wire slings for lifting a length of pipe? Select the ONE best answer.
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How should tubular items be slung? Select the ONE correct answer.
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If a load is lifted with wire rope on a single vertical hitch above its centre of gravity, what is likely to happen to it? Select the ONE best answer.
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Is the following statement true or false? A colour coded system for the lifting equipment means that there is no need for other identification to be used.
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Is weld splatter that exposes core yarns a criterion to condemn a certified polyester sling? Select the ONE correct answer
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What are multi leg bridle hitches used for? Select the ONE best answer.
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What are the most common types of sling, used on an offshore vessel? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What criteria can be used to condemn a certified chain sling used for lifting? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What criteria can be used to condemn a certified nylon sling used for lifting? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What is meant by the ‘Safe Working Load’, (SWL), of an item of lifting equipment? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What is meant by the ‘Working Load Limit’, WLL, of an item of lifting equipment? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What is meant by the term ‘loose gear’ in relation to lifting equipment? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What is the main purpose of a lifting equipment management programme on a vessel? Select the ONE best answer.
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What is the purpose of a lifting equipment colour coding system? Select the ONE best answer.
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What is the safest way to load loose ship’s stores onboard? Select the ONE best answer.
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What should be inspected before lifting tubulars with a choked wire sling? Select the ONE best answer.
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What should happen if a safety item does not function correctly during a pre-use lifting equipment check? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What should happen to condemned items of loose gear? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What type of hitch are most containers and baskets lifted with? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What would a user look for during a pre-use lifting equipment check? Select the ONE best answer.
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What is the main purpose of a lifting equipment management programme on a vessel? Select the ONE best answer.
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What is the purpose of a lifting equipment colour coding system? Select the ONE best answer.
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What is the safest way to load loose ship’s stores onboard? Select the ONE best answer.
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What should be inspected before lifting tubulars with a choked wire sling? Select the ONE best answer.
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What should happen if a safety item does not function correctly during a pre-use lifting equipment check? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What should happen to condemned items of loose gear? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What type of hitch are most containers and baskets lifted with? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What would a user look for during a pre-use lifting equipment check? Select the ONE best answer.
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Seagull CBT0612 – Respiratory Protection

A correctly worn respirator can safeguard your health and save your life.
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A respirator leak test verifies the integrity of the mask, not the fit of the mask to your face. A leak test should be performed how often?
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After cleaning your respirator, you should dry it and store it in a warm, sunny spot.
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Always use the respirator that is assigned to you.
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An air-purifying respirator will protect you from Dust?
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Ask a fellow crewmember if you’re not sure what respirator to use.
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Can you wear glasses while correctly wearing a full-face respirator?
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Can you wear glasses with a half-face respirator?
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If you’re not sure which type of respirator is required for a job, you should:
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It’s good practice to clean and disinfect your respirator after each use.
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Respiration is achieved through the mouth, nose, trachea, lungs, and ________.
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Store your respirator in nonporous, sturdy, airtight container or sealable plastic freezer bag.
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The MSDS contains information that will guide you in selecting the proper respiratory protection equipment. What does MSDS stand for?
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The primary function of the respiratory system is to provide the blood with ________.
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The purpose of a respirator is to _______.
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Training must be provided to a crewmember before using a respirator.
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True or False: A chemical’s MSDS sheet will provide respiratory-protection information.
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True or False: Respirator use protects you from hazards that can cause lung damage, respiratory diseases, cancer, poisoning, and asphyxiation.
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True or false: A respirator that uses cartridges or canisters to filter out harmful airborne contaminants is considered an air-purifying type respirator.
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True or false: Respirator cartridges are color coded to help identify the contaminant they’re intended for.
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True or false: Respirator use is not for everyone. Depending on your health history, you may not be allowed to use a respirator.
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True or false: SCBA respirators use air tanks as a method of protecting against harmful airborne contaminants. Therefore, these respirators are considered air-supplying-type respirators.
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True or false: When working in a confined space, which involves using a respirator, the best type of respirator to use is an air-supplying respirator.
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True or false: When working in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere, the best type of respirator to use is an air-purifying respirator.
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True or false: You may not be able to use a respirator safely if you have breathing problems or a heart condition.
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True or false: You should only use the respirator that has been assigned to you.
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True or false: You should use the hottest possible water to clean a respirator.
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What are the two main types of respirators?
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What is the proper way to store respirators?
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When does your supervisor provide you with a respirator?
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When inspecting a respirator, you should look for problems like:
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When is respirator fit-testing required?
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When using an air-purifying respirator a “Black” color coded cartridge is intended to be used for vapors of organic solvents.
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Why can’t you use a respirator over a beard?
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Why is respiratory protection necessary?
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You can repair your respirator yourself by looking at your manual.
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You should always inspect your respirator for any signs of damage prior to use.
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You should use the hottest possible water to clean a respirator.
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Seagull CBT0608 – Drug and Alcohol Policy and Testing

A condition where a person’s faculties are diminished so that his or her ability to see, hear, walk, talk, and judge distances is below the normal level, as set by governmental health agencies, is known as _________________.

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A ship operator is interested in implementing a drug-free ship program. Which of the following are elements that could help ensure a successful program?(Select all applicable options)
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Crewmembers who test positive for drug or alcohol may face what consequences? (Select all applicable options)
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In terms of its effects on the body, alcohol is considered a _________.
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Maritime drug and alcohol testing is:
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Of the substances that have the potential to affect human performance, ______________ is by far the most frequently used and abused.
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True or False: If you suspect another crewmember of using alcohol or drugs, the first thing you should do is inform your supervisor.
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True or False: Illegal Drug use while ashore will likely put you at risk when onboard.
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True or False: In today’s maritime industry, alcohol and drug abuse continues to be a serious problem.
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Which of the following is NOT a potential long-term health effect of stimulant abuse?
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Which of the following is a narcotic?
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Which of the following is a possible consequence of inhalant abuse?
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Which of these is NOT a possible symptom or effect of alcohol intoxication?
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Which of these is NOT a tell-tale sign of stimulant abuse?
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Which of these is NOT a typical sign of alcohol intoxication?
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Which of these is a tell-tale sign of hallucinogen abuse?
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Which type of drug causes altered perceptions and senses of sight, hearing, and touch?
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“Random testing” means crewmembers are subject to drug or alcohol testing when?
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Seagull CBT0606 – Hearing protection

Is the following statement true or false: You should never share hearing protection.
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What is a good rule of thumb to follow if you are unsure whether you require hearing protection?
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What is acoustic trauma?
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What is the BEST thing to do with any hearing protection that is found to be in poor condition?
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What is the likely consequence if a person does not follow procedures by wearing hearing protection and suffers damage to their hearing?
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Where should hearing protection be stored?
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Where will warning notices regarding high noise levels be posted on board?
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Where will you find your company’s policy on noise protection?
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Which of the following measures can help you identify when you need to wear hearing protection? Select as many answers as you think are correct.
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Which of the following pieces of hearing protection would be the minimum required when working in an area with noise levels of 95-100 decibels?
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Which of the following scenarios is likely to cause hearing loss?
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Which of the following statements about ear defenders is NOT true?
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Which of the following statements are true? Select as many answers as you think are correct.
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Which of the following statements is true with regards to Noise Induced Hearing Loss?
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Which of the options BEST completes the following sentence? A shipping company is required by law … .
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Which of the options BEST completes the following sentence? Active noise-cancelling devices … .
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Which of the options BEST completes the following sentence? Passive noise-cancelling devices … .
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Who should you ask if you are uncertain about how to fit ear plugs?
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Why is an adjustment required for the purpose of the ‘Noise Code’?
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Why is it often difficult to know that your hearing is being damaged? Select the BEST answer.
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Seagull CBT0101 – IALA Buoyage

As prescribed by the IALA Maritime Buoyage System, if you are proceeding down a channel AGAINST the Conventional Direction of Buoyage and you come across a yellow Special mark with a can shape, how will you pass it?
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As prescribed by the IALA Maritime Buoyage System, you are proceeding down a channel AGAINST the Conventional Direction of Buoyage and you come across a West Cardinal mark. How will you pass it and why?
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As prescribed in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System, what rhythm may the light of this mark display?
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As prescribed in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System, where would you find a spherical-shaped buoy?
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At what rate will a “Quick Flash” light used on a buoy of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System be flashing?
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Click on the buttons to navigate a channel in IALA Region A or Region B, selecting whether you are proceeding up-stream or down-stream and whether in daylight or at night.
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Click on the countries and continents whose waters form Region A under the IALA Maritime Buoyage System:
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Click on the countries and continents whose waters form Region B under the IALA Maritime Buoyage System:
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Click on the five standard shapes of navigational buoy used in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System:
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Click on the five types of topmark used in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System:
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Click on the light pattern below that may be found on a “preferred channel to starboard” mark in region A of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System:
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Click on the light pattern below that may be found on a “preferred channel to starboard” mark in region B of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System:
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Click on the two types of buoyage that are incorporated in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System
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Going with the Conventional Direction of Buoyage, on which side of a channel are can-shaped marks located in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System:
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Going with the Conventional Direction of Buoyage, on which side of a channel are conical-shaped marks located:
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How are Lateral marks of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System modified to show preferred channels?
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How many flashes per minute will a “Quick Flash” light display, as precribed by the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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How many “Regions” are defined in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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If numbered, do port hand marks in IALA Region A generally carry odd numbers or even numbers?
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If numbered, do port hand marks in IALA Region B generally carry odd numbers or even numbers?
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In addition to the use of buoys, what additional warning may be given by a mark of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System to indicate the presence of a “New Danger”?
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In which Region of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System do the waters of European countries lie?
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Sometimes seen as an alternative mark to those prescribed in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System, what is a nun buoy?
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The Conventional Direction of Buoyage is based on which two of the following factors?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This buoy is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass it?
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This mark is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. Where does the navigable water lie around it?
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This mark is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. Where does the navigable water lie around it?
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This mark is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. Where does the navigable water lie around it?
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This mark is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. Where does the navigable water lie around it?
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This mark is part of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. Where does the navigable water lie around it?
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Under the IALA Maritime Buoyage System and when proceeding with the Conventional Direction of Buoyage, how is the point at which two channels join marked?
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What colour are Isolated Danger Marks, as prescribed by the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What colour are Special Marks, as prescribed in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What colour is the symbol for a green buoy on a British Admiralty paper chart?
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What colour is used on port hand Lateral marks in Region A of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What colour is used on port hand Lateral marks in Region B of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What colour is used on starboard hand Lateral marks in Region A of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What colour is used on starboard hand Lateral marks in Region B of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What determines the sequence of distinctive numbers or letters used to mark lateral buoys in a channel?
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What distinctive markings are used on the Lateral marks of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System to indicate preferred channels?
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What is different in the way that buoys and beacons are shown on British Admiralty paper charts?
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What is the term used in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System to identify the feature that Cardinal marks are placed around?
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What name is given to a system where an AIS signal projects the position of a buoy artificially, for the purpose of navigational safety, without a buoy being physically present in the corresponding position?
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What name is given to the coloured strips attached to buoys which “beam back” when a light is played on them at night?
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What topmark (if fitted) is used on a North Cardinal mark of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What topmark (if fitted) is used on a Safe Water mark of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What topmark (if fitted) is used on a South Cardinal mark of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What topmark (if fitted) is used on a Special mark of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What topmark (if fitted) is used on a West Cardinal mark of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What topmark (if fitted) is used on an East Cardinal mark of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What topmark (if fitted) is used on an Isolated Danger mark of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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What type of buoy may be used as an alternative to the conventional conical, pillar and spar shapes of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System, to mark the starboard side of a channel in U.S. waters?
When discussing good navigational practice, which of the following statements is most correct?
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When establishing the Conventional Direction of Buoyage, as defined by the IALA Maritime Buoyage System, which two of the following factors are considered?
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Wherever possible, which way does the General Direction of Buoyage run, as described in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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Which of the symbols displayed represents a green conical buoy of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System on a British Admiralty chart?
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Which six of the following are the standard types of mark found in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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Which two colours are the lights used on Lateral marks in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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Which two of the following are the display modes which can be employed on an ECDIS to show the symbols on an Electronic Nautical Chart?
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Which two of the following are types of mark incorporated in the IALA Maritime Buoyage System?
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You are in IALA Region A and proceeding up a channel with the Conventional Direction of Buoyage. The buoys are numbered. How would those on the starboard side generally be marked?
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You are in IALA Region B and proceeding up a channel with the Conventional Direction of Buoyage. The buoys are numbered. How would those on the starboard side generally be marked?
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You are in Region A of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System and proceeding down a channel AGAINST the Conventional Direction of Buoyage. You come across a green conical-shaped buoy – how will you pass it?
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You are in Region A of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System and proceeding down a channel AGAINST the Conventional Direction of Buoyage. You come across a red can-shaped buoy – how will you pass it?
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You are in Region A of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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You are in Region A of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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You are in Region A of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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You are in Region A of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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You are in Region A of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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You are in Region A of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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You are in Region B of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System and proceeding down a channel AGAINST the Conventional Direction of Buoyage. You come across a green can-shaped buoy – how will you pass it?
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You are in Region B of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System and proceeding down a channel AGAINST the Conventional Direction of Buoyage. You come across a red conical-shaped buoy – how will you pass it?
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You are in Region B of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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You are in Region B of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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You are in Region B of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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You are in Region B of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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You are in Region B of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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You are in Region B of the IALA Maritime Buoyage System. How would you pass this buoy?
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Seagull CBT0288 – Green Passport (Inventory of Hazardous Materials)

A new piece of equipment is to be supplied to your ship. Which one of the following will be the best source of information to help you decide whether the ship’s Inventory of Hazardous Materials will need to be revised?
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A ship has some material listed in Appendix II of the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention onboard. Which one of the following is the most likely reason that the material might NOT be recorded in the Inventory of Hazardous Materials (IHM)?
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According to the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention, which materials must be listed in the Inventory of Hazardous Materials of an EXISTING ship which is in service? Select the most accurate answer.
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According to the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention, which parts of an Inventory of Hazardous Materials should have been completed for an EXISTING ship which is in service? Select the most accurate answer.
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Approximately how much of a ship is recycled by a typical ship breaking yard?
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Even before the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention becomes international law, your ship could be detained or fined if it does not have an Inventory of Hazardous Materials. Which one of the following reasons most accurately explains why the above statement is true?
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It has been decided that a ship is to be scrapped. Which one of the following most accurately identifies what must be recorded in the Inventory of Hazardous Materials for operationally generated wastes?
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It has been decided that a ship is to be scrapped. Which one of the following most accurately identifies what should be done before completing the ‘operationally generated wastes’ part of an Inventory of Hazardous Materials (IHM)?
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Part 3 of the Inventory of Hazardous Materials is to be completed. Which one of the following should be recorded in the section for ‘Regular consumable goods potentially containing Hazardous Materials’?
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Select the option which correctly identifies the categories to be used when assessing information on the location of hazardous materials on an EXISTING ship which is in service?
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Under the Hong Kong Convention, which ships need to have an International Certificate on Inventory of Hazardous Materials? Select the most accurate answer.
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Under the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention how will the accuracy of a ships Inventory of Hazardous Materials be checked? Select the most accurate answer.
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What is the purpose of a ‘Supplier’s Declaration of Conformity’ when completing an Inventory of Hazardous Materials? Select the best answer.
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When must an Inventory of Hazardous Materials on an EXISTING ship list Appendix II materials? Select the best answer.
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When would ‘Indicative’ testing be justified while making an Inventory of Hazardous Materials on an EXISTING ship? Select the best answer.
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Which one of the following best describes how an Inventory of Hazardous Materials is most likely to change procedures at dry docking?
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Which one of the following correctly identifies the documentation that must be completed before the ship is sold to a ship breaker, under the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention?
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Which one of the following correctly identifies what a ship breaker must do with a ship’s Inventory of Hazardous Materials, under the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention?
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Which one of the following correctly identifies what must be done to an oil tanker before it can be sold for scrap, under the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention?
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Which one of the following identifies the best way in which the presence of hazardous materials can be confirmed on an EXISTING ship which is in service without inspection or sampling?
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Which one of the following identifies the main use that an Inventory of Hazardous Materials is to the ship’s crew?
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Which one of the following identifies when the listing of equipment as ‘Potentially containing hazardous material’ in the Inventory of Hazardous Materials can best be justified on an EXISTING ship?
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Which one of the following identifies why it could be worth paying a little more for a ship which is documented as having been built with little or no hazardous materials?
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Which one of the following is responsible for updating an Inventory of Hazardous Materials (IHM) after a ship’s dry docking?
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Which one of the following is the correct name for the document commonly known as a ship’s ‘Green Passport’?
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Which one of the following is the correct name of the certificate that a ship gets after passing a survey for compliance with the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention?
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Which one of the following is the main aim of the Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes?
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Which one of the following is the maximum time of validity for an International Certificate on Inventory of Hazardous Materials?
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Which one of the following is the proper title of the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention?
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Which one of the following most accurately identifies the additional parts of an Inventory of Hazardous Materials that must be completed after it is decided to scrap a ship?
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Which one of the following most accurately identifies the materials that should have been listed in the Inventory of Hazardous Materials before delivery of a NEW ship, according to the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention?
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Which parts of an Inventory of Hazardous Materials should have been completed before delivery of a NEW ship, according to the ‘Hong Kong’ Convention? Select the best answer.
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Which two of the following are the most likely to be useful when collecting information on the location of hazardous materials on an EXISTING ship which is in service?
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Who would complete a ‘Material Declaration’ so that an Inventory of Hazardous Materials for a NEW ship can be completed? Select the best answer.
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Seagull CBT0057 – Doppler log

Aerated water can affect a Doppler log. Which one of the options is the most likely to produce aerated water?
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Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘If undisturbed reverberation measurement in shallow water is not possible, the system automatically switches to…
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Select, from the options given, six factors that are likely to affect a Doppler log system.
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Which mode is the most suitable to use if the primary function of the connected ARPA is traffic surveillance?
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Which one of the following statement depends on the “Janus configuration”?
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Which one of the modes given in the options should be used when the Doppler log is connected to an ARPA-radar which is primarily used for traffic surveillance (according to IMO-rules)?
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Which one of the modes given in the options should be used when the Doppler log is connected to an autopilot with track keeping functions?
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Which one of the options identifies when the Doppler log would normally be switched off?
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Which one of the options is the most likely reason that a Doppler log’s operation might be disturbed during docking operations?
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Which one of the options is the type of measurement used by the Doppler log?
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Seagull CBT0103 – INS – Integrated Navigation System

A good INS system consists of how many main parts?
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How many earth based monitor stations are in use by the GPS system?
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Is ECDIS considered to be a primary or secondary INS sub system?
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Mark the main components that are essential to the operation of an INS/IBS system
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The ECDIS consist of how many main components?
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The information provided by UAIS can be divided in how many groups?
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What is considered to be the most important part of an INS system?
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What is the main difference between ECS and ECDIS?
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What is the main purpose of ECDIS
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What is the main purpose of IBS?
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What is the main purpose of INS?
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What is the main purpose of operational procedures?
ANSWER:

What is the meaning of proper setting of warning limits?
ANSWER:

What is the meaning of “Total system monitoring”
ANSWER:

What is the meaning of “adaptive autopilot”?
ANSWER:

What is the most important ARPA function?
ANSWER:

What is the most important part of INS?
ANSWER:

What is the most important thing to know about the INS system?
ANSWER:

What is the purpose of Differentional GPS?
ANSWER:

What is the purpose of INS?
ANSWER:

What kind of system is the conning display?
ANSWER:

When should “Track mode” be used?
ANSWER:

Which system is considered “Secondary” in INS?
ANSWER:

Why does the adaptive autopilot need speed through water information?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0031 – Pusnes ETS

Deployment, Emergency procedure: Which statement is correct?
ANSWER:
How often is it necessary to mount the air motor and unreel the entire length of the towing wire and check for any damage?
ANSWER:

How often must the centrifugal brake be inspected?
ANSWER:

How often shall the weak link and the turnbuckle be checked?
ANSWER:

Packing of pick-up gear container procedure: How do you check that the light bulbs is flashing?
ANSWER:

Test Procedure: Which statement is correct when you are following the test procedure?
ANSWER:

The ETS 100D is designed for the following ship type?
ANSWER:

The ETS 100F is designed for the following ship type?
ANSWER:

What is the correct thing to do when the light bulbs are not flashing when holding the buoys in an upright position?
ANSWER:

What is the maximum allowed deployment time for the forward ets system?
ANSWER:

What is the maximum allowed deployment time of the pick-up gear for one man? (Aft System)
ANSWER:

When shall the three batteries in each buoy be replaced?
ANSWER:

Which one of the IM0 publications given in the options sets out the requirements for emergency towing systems, ETS.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0061 – Stability 2

A ship has VCG = 9,80 m above keel. The metacentre position above keel varies according to the hydrostatic table shown here. What is the maximum permissible draught for the ship to fulfil the stability requirements?
ANSWER:

Click on the different watertight compartments and analyse the triangles. How many damaged compartments does the following ship survive?
ANSWER:

In the added weight method, the free communication effect in damaged condition:
ANSWER:

What is the minimum required GM for a ship with following GM (min) curves and draught 6.3 metres?
ANSWER:

What is the minimum required residual dynamic stability for a damaged passenger ship at equilibrium?
ANSWER:

What is the minimum required righting lever for a damaged passenger ship at final state of flooding?
ANSWER:

What is the minimum required righting lever for a damaged passenger ship at intermediate state of flooding?
ANSWER:

What is usually the effect on G when the ship is damaged?
ANSWER:

What statement is true about the metacentric radius?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statement (s) are true?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements are true, with respect to change of stability parameters for a damaged ship?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements is true? (Select all applicable options)
ANSWER:

Which statement is true about the metacentric radius?
ANSWER:

Which statement is true about volume permeability? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

Which statements are true concerning the Lost of Buoyancy method:
ANSWER:

Which statements are true concerning the added weight method:
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0570 – Resilience, Positivity, perspective and confidence

According to this module, which of the following is NOT one of the main components of resilience?
ANSWER:

How does inadequate resilience affect safety on board a vessel?
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘A positive outlook is a behaviour that can be learned.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘Adequate resilience requires a person to have immense physical strength to be able to deal with situations and challenges.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘Creating a positive perspective can improve your overall wellbeing.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘People suffering from depression or anxiety are more likely to trigger the Fight, Flight or Freeze response.’
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the options is the only time that the fight, flight or freeze response is triggered by a real danger instead of a perceived danger?
ANSWER:

Which of the following are examples of a positive outlook? Select as many as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements about perspective are true? Select as many as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

Which of the options BEST completes the following sentence? ‘Perspectives are…’
ANSWER:

Which of the options BEST completes the following sentence? ‘When making safety based decisions, resilient people…’
ANSWER:

Which of the options BEST completes the following statement? ‘Resilience is defined as a person’s ability to…’
ANSWER:

Which of the options BEST describes Fight, Flight or Freeze responses to danger?
ANSWER:

Which of the options is incorrect when describing the reason to adopt a positive outlook on board a vessel?
ANSWER:

Why does the Fight, Flight or Freeze response happen when there is no real danger present?
ANSWER:

Why is confidence such an important part of resilient behaviour?
ANSWER:

Why is it important to reframe some situations?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0583 – Oil spill response

During a cargo transfer operation, when is it appropriate to press the transfer pump emergency stop button?
ANSWER:

For safety, what is required of an air driven pump that is to be used to transfer spilled oil?
ANSWER:

How might oil flow overboard even on a ship with a large spill coaming?
ANSWER:

In what direction will oil spilled on deck usually flow?
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘Oil spills only occur during cargo loading and discharging operations.’
ANSWER:

Tanks can overfill because of human error, possibly leading to a spill. Which of the following options could cause a tank to overfill?
ANSWER:

What is the first priority when oil is spilled on board a vessel?
ANSWER:

What is your first priority in the event of an oil spill?
ANSWER:

When cleaning up an oil spill, you get some oil on your forearm. After removing the excess oil and washing the area with water and soap, you see that it is swollen and red. What should you do?
ANSWER:

Where is the best place to find specific information on safety, toxic effects and what to do if someone is exposed to oil?
ANSWER:

Which of the following are examples of common areas where oil spills can occur? Select as many as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

Which of the following is used to contain a small spill from a deck connection?
ANSWER:

Which of the following items should be used during an oil spill clean-up? Select as many as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

Which of the following must be avoided when cleaning up an oil spill? Select as many answers as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

Which of the following must be avoided when there is oil on deck?
ANSWER:

Which of the following oil spill events is most likely to lead to a pollution incident? Select the BEST answer.
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements is true?
ANSWER:

Which of the options BEST COMPLETES the following sentence? ‘The highest risk of an oil spill occurring happens..’
ANSWER:

Which of the options best completes the following statement? ‘After an oil spill, a fire hose should…’
ANSWER:

Why is it important NOT to store oil soaked sawdust for long periods?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0427 – Navigation in cold environments

An ice surface with hummocks and pools is usually a sign that…? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

For ice to be classified as ‘old’, how old does it have to be? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How can old ice be identified just by looking at it? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How can young ice be identified just by looking at it? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

If an icebreaker displays two flashing red lights what does this indicate? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

In general, what sort of radar target does sea ice make? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

In ice-covered water, how should a course change be executed? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

In wind, which is the recommended way to pass an iceberg to avoid growlers and bergy bits? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Normally, how thick is young ice? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Recently frozen water is recognized by which characteristic? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What best describes the type of ice known as ‘nilas’. Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is an ‘Ice horn’ as fitted to the hull of an ice class vessel? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is best avoided to prevent being beset in ice? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is meant by the expression ‘close coupled towing’ in relation to an icebreaker? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the effect of low temperature on mild steel used in ship construction? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the minimum height above the sea surface that an iceberg has? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What radar technique should be included to detect an iceberg that does not have a good radar return? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What rudder position is recommended to protect the steering gear from ice damage when a vessel has sternway? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What type of chart projection is NOT suitable for use in high latitudes? Select the ONE correct option.
ANSWER:

When an icebreaker is breaking a channel through large heavy floes at slow speed, how wide will the channel normally be? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When entering ice covered waters, how should the vessel’s speed be set? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When proceeding through ice-infested waters, what is one important rule to be observed to keep a vessel safe? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which environmental force has the greatest influence on a new iceberg’s movement? Select the ONE best option.
ANSWER:

Which method gives the greatest chance of close range ice detection? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which type of ice is most difficult to detect in open water? Select the ONE correct option.
ANSWER:

Which type of ice is most difficult to detect? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why is backing a vessel in ice that is not designed for it, potentially dangerous? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Seaqgull sCBT 0428 – Passage planning in cold environments

According to the IMO, which two publications should be carried onboard a vessel bound for polar waters? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How does the accuracy of some charts in polar areas compare to lower latitudes? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

How does the accuracy of some charts in polar areas compare to those of lower latitudes? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

How many Canadian Shipping Safety Control Zones are there? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

In a polar area, within which limitations should a vessel always be operated? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

In which route is the ‘Parry Channel’ found? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘A magnetic compass is more reliable than a gyro compass in high latitudes.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘Anyone can become an ice navigator’.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘A vessel can only sail within the dates set out in the safety control zone table’.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘Anyone can become an ice navigator’.
ANSWER:

Of what significance is a negative ice number calculated for the Arctic Ice Regime Shipping System? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Select the correct answer to complete the following statement. ‘A ‘tactical’ passage plan through unexpected ice is dependent upon…
ANSWER:

Under some atmospheric conditions found in polar areas, what colour can a white light appear? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Upon what are the restrictions in the Canadian Shipping Safety Control Zones based? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What are the restrictions in the Canadian Shipping Safety Control Zones based on? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the basic principle of the Antarctic Treaty? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the minimum information that an IMO training manual should contain? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the most important principle for successful ice navigation? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What would a ‘tactical’ passage plan in the Arctic take into account? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

When does the Canadian Government require an ice navigator to be on a vessel? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When executing a passage, what is the safest thing to do if an ice field lies on the planned route? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When is navigation possible on the ‘Kara Sea Route’ which is part of the Northern Sea Route? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When navigating in a polar area, what should a vessel passage planner always remember? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which current is responsible for bringing icebergs into the North Atlantic shipping lanes each year? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which government’s rules do vessels transiting the Northern Sea Route have to follow? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which government’s rules do vessels transiting the Northern Sea Route have to follow? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Who regulates traffic in the Northern Sea Route? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why are more vessels navigating the northern sea routes than ever before? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why can conventional Mercator charts NOT be used in high latitudes? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why do navigators have to be very careful if navigating outside regularly used areas in the Arctic? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why should a navigator always give special attention to monitoring a vessel when navigating in high latitudes? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why should navigators have special skills to navigate in polar areas? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0515 – Onboard paint maintenance, Paint technology and coating life-cycle

Onboard paint maintenance, Paint technology and coating life-cycle
ANSWER:

What does a marine paint system typically consist of?
ANSWER:

What is a ‘surface tolerant’ paint?
ANSWER:

Where does a record of the paints and associated materials used throughout a ship’s life, and any stocks remaining prior to scrapping, have to be maintained?
ANSWER:

Which of the coats in a modern marine onboard maintenance paint system is designed to add thickness and cover surface imperfections?
ANSWER:

Which of the following components is not found in a fully-dried paint film?
ANSWER:

Which of the following factors is most likely to have a positive impact on the life cycle of a ship’s coating?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the best definition of a paint system?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the ultimate consequence of failing to address corrosion?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements best describes the function of the binder in paint?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements best describes the function of the pigment in paint?
ANSWER:

Why must remaining paint stocks be formally listed before a ship goes for recycling?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0514 – Onboard paint maintenance, Corrosion

Select the correct factor to fill in the gap. Iron + XXXXX + Water = Rust.
ANSWER:

What are pure metals that are highly resistant to corrosion called?
ANSWER:

What breaks down in erosion-assisted corrosion?
ANSWER:

What does the ‘galvanic table’ show us about two different metals placed in seawater?
ANSWER:

What factor in sea water increases the threat of corrosion occurring to a metal structure?
ANSWER:

Which kind of area on a ship is most likely to experience anaerobic corrosion?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is correct?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is needed for ‘galvanic corrosion’?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the most usual cause of stress corrosion?
ANSWER:

Why does unprotected steel corrode?
ANSWER:

Why is applying paint directly over mill scale a waste of time?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0512 – Onboard paint maintenance, Surface preparation

During surface preparation, you see someone trying to clean off oil and grease with a rag dipped in solvent. Why will this method not work?
ANSWER:

What equipment is recommended for removing corrosion on corners and angled frames?
ANSWER:

What is meant by ‘feathering’ a painted surface?
ANSWER:

What is recommended before you start cleaning away contaminants in an area to be repainted?
ANSWER:

What is the recommended minimum difference between dew point and surface temperature before painting should be commenced?
ANSWER:

What kind of cleaning problems are most likely to be found in machinery spaces and pump room areas?
ANSWER:

What should you do once a surface is satisfactorily prepared for coating?
ANSWER:

What would you do with any piece of equipment before using it for surface preparation?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is essential as part of the preparation of a surface for painting?
ANSWER:

Which of these is a reasonable method of detecting the presence of oil and grease on a surface?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0511 – Onboard paint maintenance, Health and safety

How do you dispose of old paint drums, some with residues of paint still in them?
ANSWER:

If you were to get a corrosive painting product, such as cleaning acid, on your hands and it was not washed away quickly, what might be the result?
ANSWER:

What does the term ‘inhalation’ mean?
ANSWER:

Where can details of the various chemical risks from paint and associated products be found?
ANSWER:

Which of the following operations might release more paint fumes than usual?
ANSWER:

Why are the locations of the nearest emergency shower and eye-wash important when planning painting and surface preparation?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0510 – Onboard paint maintenance, Inspection, planning and stock-keeping

According to this learning session, which of the following areas would be assigned the highest priority for repair and re-coating?
ANSWER:

According to this training module, which of these descriptions might be used to describe how extensive the breakdown is in an area of paint?
ANSWER:

As defined in this training module, when considering successive paint layers, what is ‘compatibility’?
ANSWER:

If you observe corrosion along the edges of a plate or frame, what might this be a sign of?
ANSWER:

In some cases, discoloration resulting from contamination can be reversed. How might this be achieved?
ANSWER:

What is ‘chalking’?
ANSWER:

What principle should be followed when stowing new stock in the paint locker?
ANSWER:

What types of paint are safe to over-coat, with no adverse effects?
ANSWER:

Why is it necessary to mark partly used paint drums that have been re-sealed?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0111 – Heavy Weather Damage – Container Vessel

By 31 December 1997, which ships were required to carry an approved CSM, under SOLAS ‘74? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

During heavy weather what (approximate) transverse force could be imparted to a five-tier stack of forty-foot containers?
ANSWER:

During heavy weather, what could be the approximate induced transverse wind force acting on a five-tier stack of containers?
ANSWER:

During pitching, when will pressure changes on the forward container stacks reach their maximum values?
ANSWER:

For a container stowed in a position equidistant from the roll and pitch axes of your ship, what would reduce the accelerations to one quarter?
ANSWER:

From the formula below, which is correct? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

From the formula below, which statements are correct? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

How do the accelerations always affect a container lashing system?
ANSWER:

How should twistlocks be greased? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

How would you properly grease turnbuckles?
ANSWER:

How would you properly grease twistlocks? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

How would you properly maintain the container lashing equipment on board your ship? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

How would you recognise the onset of parametric rolling?
ANSWER:

How would you recognise the possible onset of Parametric rolling? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

If a ship were to meet head-on seas, what would the change in the ship’s direction of motion result in? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

If you were on a large container ship with flared bows and a flat, wide stern experiencing seas in near-gale conditions, what action would you take to avoid the possible onset of Parametric rolling?
ANSWER:

If you were on a large container ship with flared bows and a wide, flat stern experiencing gale conditions, what action would you avoid taking? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

In accordance with what should the lashing and securing of containers be carried out?
ANSWER:

In what sea condition will parametric rolling not be induced?
ANSWER:

Once you have calculated the transverse forces acting on a particular container, what would you do with this information? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

To what limits do lashing equipment manufacturers design their equipment?
ANSWER:

Under OSHA regulations what item of container securing equipment is not feasible when using ordinary cranes? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

Under OSHA regulations, what inherent problems are associated with a container spreader suspended from a single point? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

Under OSHA regulations, which of the following is a ‘positive container securing device’? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What action(s) would contribute to the prevention of lashing failure?
ANSWER:

What action(s) would contribute to the prevention of lashing failure? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What are some of the basic causes for container stows to collapse? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What are some of the basic causes for container stows to collapse? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What are the advantages of securing containers to a lashing bridge? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What are the disadvantages of securing containers to a Lashing Bridge? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What are the limitations of CSMs? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What are the responsibilities of a ship owner in ensuring that containers can safely be carried on board? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What causes longitudinal accelerations? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

What causes vertical accelerations?
ANSWER:

What causes, or contributes to, tipping? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What contributes to the safe carriage of containers? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What dangers are associated with attempting to steer out of following seas? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What does heaving result in? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What does the integrity of a container lashing system depend upon?
ANSWER:

What information do loading computers provide us with? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What information is included in loading computers? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What is the most important factor to be considered when deciding the lashing system for a sea route during a particular season?
ANSWER:

What is tipping?
ANSWER:

What led to the United States Coast Guard’s proposal to include carriage requirements for cargo securing manuals under SOLAS ‘74?
ANSWER:

What produces longitudinal accelerations?
ANSWER:

What should be maintained in the file covering items of lashing gear? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What stability variations contribute to parametric rolling of large container ships as they encounter two waves during one roll cycle?
ANSWER:

What would ensure the safe usage of deck fittings? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What would ensure the safe usage of dovetail foundations? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What would help prevent container stows from collapsing?
ANSWER:

What would you look for when inspecting bridge fittings? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What would you look for when inspecting deck sockets? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What would you look for when inspecting dovetail foundations? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What would you look for when inspecting lashing plates? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What would you look for when inspecting lashing rods? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What would you look for when inspecting turnbuckles? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What would you look for when inspecting twistlocks? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What would you look for when inspecting ‘D’ rings? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

When do wind forces cause heeling moments on container ships? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

When does a container experience a force of 100% of its weight plus cargo?
ANSWER:

When will a ship experience ‘Resonance’? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

When will parametric rolling occur? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

When will parametric rolling occur? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

When will parametric rolling occur? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

When will ‘resonance’ occur?
ANSWER:

When would vertical accelerations reach their maximum values on the containers stowed in the forward and aft container bays?
ANSWER:

When would you expect large roll amplitudes to occur? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

Where are the statutory requirements for the carriage of CSMs found? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

Where would you expect to find carriage requirements for cargo securing manuals, in SOLAS 74/78? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

Where would you find tools to assist in calculating wind pressure? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

Where would you find tools to assist you with calculating wind forces? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

Which of these motions has a marked effect on a ship’s stability, whilst also affecting container corner posts and the cargo securing system in general?
ANSWER:

Who can approve a CSM? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

Who was primarily responsible for proposing mandatory requirements for certain types and sizes of ships to carry a cargo securing manual?
ANSWER:

Why do acceleration forces differ somewhat from those shown in a ship’s CSM? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

With respect of Classification Societies, what is the concern regarding container lashing equipment? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

With respect to OSHA requirements when can stevedores work on top of containers? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

With respect to container lashings, what could happen in heavy weather if the extreme pitch angle occurred simultaneously with heaving? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

With respect to lashing bars and turnbuckles, which of the following statements is true? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

With respect to twistlock springs, what would ensure their safe operation?
ANSWER:

With what does a ship’s angle of pitch vary? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0218 – Oil Record Book, Part I

A Port State Control Officer finds a mistake in the oil record book dated last week, when the ship was in the middle of the Pacific. Can you or the ship be fined for the mistake?
ANSWER:

Bunkering of heavy fuel oil started at 9pm on May 19th and took 5½ hours. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record these times in the oil record book against operation Code H 26.2?
ANSWER:

It is the last day of September and you are going to make an entry in the oil record book. Which one of the following is the correct date format?
ANSWER:

It is your company’s policy to record the contents of the bilge holding tanks in the oil record book every week. Which of the following is the correct operation code to use for this?
ANSWER:

Just before the engine room goes unmanned for the night you find that the oily bilge pump, which supplies the oily water separator, will not start. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

The Incinerator Sludge Service Tank has been heated for 4 days in preparation for sludge burning. During this time 0.2 m³ of water has evaporated. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

The contents of the Incinerator Sludge Service Tank have settled so that you can drain some water to the bilges. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

The contents of the Main Sludge Tank have been pumped to a road tanker while in the port of Miami. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

The incinerator has just been shut down after 8 hours burning waste cardboard and sludge from the Incinerator Sludge Service Tank. The incinerator sludge burning capacity is noted on the IOPP certificate as 480 kW (approx. 50 litres/hour). Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

The oil record book entry relates to the transfer of 2 m³of sludge to the Incinerator Sludge Service Tank from the Main Sludge Tank, ready for burning. Which one of the following is the correct operation code to enter?
ANSWER:

When starting a new oil record book you notice that the oily water separator capacity on the IOPP certificate does not match that on the oily water separator name plate. Which one of the following best describes what you should do about this?
ANSWER:

When you take the oil record book to the master for his signature he points out that last week’s sludge discharge ashore has not been recorded. Which one of the following is the best way to correct this mistake?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes what PSCOs are likely to think if they find an oil record book containing many corrected entries?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes what reason a PSCO might accept to explain why the bilge holding tank in the engine room double bottom contains less water today than was recorded in the oil record book yesterday?
ANSWER:

Which of the following describe errors that are regularly found in oil record book entries by inspectors? Tick all those that apply.
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the correct format to be used for writing dates in an oil record book entry?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes how the ship’s positions in oil record book entries can easily be found to be false, even ones from a month ago?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes how you can enter the quantity of water pumped overboard from the engine room bilge wells through the oily water separator (OWS) into the oil record book when you have no sounding tables for the bilge wells?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the action to take if you realise the entry you have just made in the oil record is partially incorrect?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the likely reaction of a Port State Control Officer (PSCO) if unusually repetitive entries are found in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the number of signatures you would expect to find on one page of an oil record book when it is completed?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes what should be done with an oil record book when it has been filled up?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes what should be done with an oil record book when it is full?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes what should be written under each oil record book entry by the officer in charge of the operation?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes what you should do if your old oil record book is full and the only available new one is found to contain out of date MARPOL operation codes?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes where you would expect to find a receipt for sludge that was discharged ashore?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes which ships are required to maintain an oil record book according to the MARPOL Convention?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why MARPOL requires ships to maintain an oil record book?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why the total quantity of sludge, measured by the weekly soundings of sludge tanks, usually goes up every week even if the oily water separator has not been used?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following describes the best way of finding out if your ship has been fitted with an alarm and automatic stop on the oily water separator which complies with MARPOL Annex I requirements?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following describes the best way of making sure that the quantity of sludge discharged to reception facilities matches the reduction in sludge retained on board?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following describes the best way to find out which tanks have been designated for sludge and which for holding bilge water on your ship, as far as oil record book entries are concerned?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is recommended as the first thing to do when starting a new oil record book?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the maximum fine that could be imposed in Germany for an incorrect entry in the ship’s oil record book according to this program?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the maximum penalty that could be imposed in the United States for a deliberately false entry in the ship’s oil record book according to this program?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following operation codes would be the best to use to record the fact that the oily water separator overboard discharge valve has been sealed while the ship passes through the Mediterranean MARPOL Special Area?
ANSWER:

While loading heavy fuel oil at Yokohama the bunker barge flexible hose bursts leading to fuel entering the water. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

You find that the trainee engineer officer has made an entry in the oil record book using a pencil. Which one of the following best describes what you, as senior engineer on the watch, should do about this?
ANSWER:

You have just finished bunkering diesel fuel. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct operation code to use in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

You have just finished bunkering diesel with a specific gravity of 0.9. 20 m³ was loaded to the Diesel Oil Settling Tank and 100 m³ to the Diesel Oil DB Tank. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

You have just finished pumping clean water from the bottom of the Primary Bilge Tank into the Main Bilge Holding Tank. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

You have just finished pumping the engine room bilges overboard through the oily water separator. The oily water separator is fitted with automatic alarm and stop. Which of the following is the correct operation code?
ANSWER:

You have just finished pumping the sump oil from No 2 generator to the Main Sludge Tank. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

You have just finished transferring bilge water from the Main Bilge Holding Tank in the engine room into the starboard cargo slop tank of the crude oil tanker you are sailing on. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the Oil Record Book Part I (machinery space operations)?
ANSWER:

You have just finished transferring oil residue from the Bilge Holding Tank to the Incinerator Sludge Service Tank ready for evaporation of the water. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

You have just finished transferring the sludge from the Main Sludge Tank in the engine room into the starboard cargo slop tank of the crude oil tanker you are sailing on. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the Oil Record Book Part I (machinery space operations)?
ANSWER:

You have just overflowed the emergency generator fuel tank while filling it up during a voyage. Some oil went on deck and then into the sea. Which of the following is the correct operation code for recording the pollution?
ANSWER:

You have just set the automatic bilge pumping system to discharge overboard through the oily water separator for the next few days, while the ship crosses the Atlantic. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

You have used the 6 m³/hr oily bilge pump to pump the aft ER bilge well to the Bilge Holding Tank. The Bilge Holding Tank is listed in section 3.3 of the IOPP certificate. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

Your Company has just taken over a ship from other owners. Which one of the following is the best way to decide which tanks MARPOL requires to be sounded weekly and recorded in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

Your Company’s policy is to sound all tanks daily and to record the results for the bilge tanks in the oil record book every week. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct way to record this in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

Your ship is allowed to ballast No 2 Centre Diesel Oil Tank and did so after the fuel was used on the last voyage. The ship has now arrived in port and needs to deballast to shore reception facilities before bunkering for the next voyage. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct operation code to use in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

Your ship is fitted with the latest type of fuel oil treatment plant which reduces the amount of sludge produced compared to traditional centrifugal oil separators. Which one of the following describes the best way to avoid being thought guilty of illegal sludge discharge by a Port State Control Officer (PSCO) due to there being less sludge than was expected?
ANSWER:

Your ship needs to de-bunker the remaining fuel from No 27 Bunker Tank so that it can be steamed out and surveyed. Based upon the recommendations in this training program which of the following is the correct operation code to use in the oil record book?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0592 – Effective lifeboat drills

What must be tested during abandon ship drills? Select as many answers as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

Which THREE of the following statements about realistic abandon ship drills are correct?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of the factors listed can be used to develop performance standards for all stages of abandon ship drills?
ANSWER:

Which of the following BEST describes the state in which it is important for personnel to practice taking effective action during abandon ship drills?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best completes the following sentence? ‘The debrief should take place…’
ANSWER:

Which of the following describes the four elements that all effective training and drills will include?
ANSWER:

Which of the following helps to create more effective abandon ship drills?
ANSWER:

Which of the following must be tested as part of an abandon ship drill?
ANSWER:

Which of the following should be completed during preparations to conduct an abandon ship drill?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements about abandon ship drills are true? Select as many as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

Which of the methods below is a tactic deployed during a drill to calm proceedings?
ANSWER:

Which of the options BEST completes the following sentence? ‘In respect to abandon ship drills, SOLAS requires that seafarers…’
ANSWER:

Which of the options BEST completes the following sentence? ‘Plans for abandon ship drills should…’
ANSWER:

Which of the options below should be considered first when planning an abandon ship drill?
ANSWER:

Which of the options describes the three sections of a drill?
ANSWER:

Who should be involved in the debrief following every abandon ship drill?
ANSWER:

Why is it essential to have abandon ship drills aboard ship? Select as many answers as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

Why is it essential to have an effective organisation on a vessel to prepare for and abandon ship? Select the TWO best answers.
ANSWER:

Why is it important that the debrief includes everyone who took part in the drill?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0298 – Use of Liferafts

After boarding a liferaft, which one of these actions will best slow down the drift of the liferaft in strong winds? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

During abandonment, what must you check first before lowering a liferaft embarkation ladder? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

How could a crewmember become familiar with the steps needed to launch a remote liferaft? Select the TWO correct answers.
ANSWER:

In a liferaft, where is most of the survival equipment stored?
ANSWER:

There is a knife, in a pocket, close to the entrance to the liferaft. What is it’s main use? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Underneath a liferaft there are webbing straps spreading across the underside of the floor. What are they used for? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What can help you most when boarding a liferaft from the water? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What equipment in a liferaft is provided to help rescue survivors who are in the water? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the first thing you must do once everyone is in a liferaft? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the main purpose of the painter connected to the liferaft? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the minimum number of people needed to transfer a large throw-over liferaft? Select the ONE correct answer
ANSWER:

What is the purpose of a liferaft hydrostatic release unit? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the purpose of the liferaft “container line”? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What part of a liferaft is used to help a survivor in the water to get inside the liferaft? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When abandoning ship, when would you have to use liferafts instead of lifeboats? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When might you need to launch a remote liferaft on the weather side? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where would you find details of the types of liferaft types found onboard your ship? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which one of these options best describes when you might have to launch a liferaft without being given orders? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which one of these options is most important when preparing to launch and board a liferaft? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which type of liferaft does not need to be fitted with a hydrostatic release unit? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why is it most important to board a liferaft from the water as quickly as possible? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why is it necessary to close the liferaft entrances as soon as possible after boarding? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why should you NOT bring a sharp knife with you when boarding a liferaft? Select ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why should you look over the side before launching a throw-over liferaft? Select ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0020 – Search and Rescue

“Only one primary co-ordinating frequency should be used at the scene of a search and rescue” Is the statement True or False?
ANSWER:

“The master of a ship always has to provide assistance in a distress situation” Is this statement true or false?
ANSWER:

A distress signal must have two parts; select the TWO options that combine to form a distress signal.
ANSWER:

A dotted line is seen on a radar display when a signal is received back from a SART. Which ONE of these options best identifies the location of the SART?
ANSWER:

A master decides NOT to provide assistance to a vessel in distress. What must they do next? Select the option that is the most important.
ANSWER:

During a search and rescue mission, what is the best position for an effective lookout during darkness? Select the ONE best option.
ANSWER:

During a search and rescue mission, what is the best position for an effective lookout during darkness? Select the ONE best option.
ANSWER:

Following an SAR incident, your ship may be asked to provide a post SAR report. Select, from the options given, all of those likely to make such a request.
ANSWER:

For the survivors of a search and rescue operations, is the following statement true or false? “The assisting ship is always considered a place of safety”
ANSWER:

From what direction should a burning ship be approached? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

From what direction should a life raft be approached? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

How can the visual methods of communication for use in search and rescue be checked? Select the TWO best answers.
ANSWER:

If there have been deaths during an SAR operation, what should be done with the personal belongings of the deceased? Select the best answer.
ANSWER:

In relation to search and rescue, what do the initials ‘OSC’ represent?
ANSWER:

In relation to search and rescue, what do the initials ‘RCC’ represent?
ANSWER:

In relation to search and rescue, what do the initials ‘SMC’ represent?
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? “The international regulations for preventing collisions at sea still apply during SAR operations”
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? “The international regulations for preventing collisions at sea still apply during SAR operations”
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘You have to acknowledge and investigate every DSC alert’
ANSWER:

Is the statement ‘you have to acknowledge and investigate every DSC alert’ true or false?
ANSWER:

Select the ONE option which most accurately completes the following statement. “An EPIRB should not be transferred from one ship to another unless…
ANSWER:

Select the option that gives the most accurate definition of a Search and Rescue Region, SRR
ANSWER:

There has been a death during an SAR operation. Where is the best place to store the dead body? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

There have been deaths during a SAR operation and the deceased had an infectious disease. What should be done with the deceased’s belongings?
ANSWER:

What ONE of the following most accurately identifies the radio frequencies that will be used at the scene of a search and rescue?
ANSWER:

What are the benefits to the SMC of using ship reporting systems? Select all options that apply.
ANSWER:

What information should be recorded by the OSC? Select the THREE correct options.
ANSWER:

What information should usually be provided in an on-scene SITREP? Select any answers that you think apply.
ANSWER:

What is a ‘place of safety’ for the survivors of a rescue? Select the best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the main role of the OSC with respect to communications? Select the best option
ANSWER:

What is usually the most effective search method when ships and aircraft are involved? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

What should a recue ship do if its radar breaks down during a search? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

When does a NAVTEX receiver monitor the transmission of Marine Safety Information? Select the best answer.
ANSWER:

When is a ‘sector search’ most effective? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

When is a ‘track line search’ most effective? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

When should an initial ‘SITREP’ be transmitted? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

When should distress messages be cancelled? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

When should distress messages be cancelled? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

When the position of the search object is reasonably well known, which of these is the best search pattern to adopt?
ANSWER:

When would a ‘parallel track’ search be used? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

When would a master NOT have to respond to a distress signal? Select the ONE answer that is the most accurate.
ANSWER:

When your ship is talking to a craft in distress, what information should you give to them? Select the THREE correct answers.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following describes the function of an AIS SART?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following most accurately completes the following statement? “During a parallel track search…
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following most accurately completes the following statement? “Communication between an aircraft and a ship is…
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following most accurately completes the following statement? “The first ship arriving at the scene of a SAR incident would normally…
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following pieces of information is always included in a 406 MHz EPIRB signal?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following signals is NOT a distress signal?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following types of equipment would display an activated radar SART?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following volumes of IAMSAR must be carried on board?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following would be the best person to speak to the media after an SAR incident?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these is the most important factor when using an expanded square search? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these search patterns creates a particular problem in restricted visibility?
ANSWER:

Which THREE of the following pieces of information are immediately available to a ground control station when a 406 MHz EPIRB signal is first picked up?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of the following responsibilities does a rescue vessel have to survivors following a search and rescue mission?
ANSWER:

Which equipment carried onboard would indicate to the SMC that there are medical facilities available? Select the best option?
ANSWER:

Which of the following correctly identifies when you should acknowledge receipt of a VHF/MF DSC alert?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the best place to put a rescued survivor?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following pieces of equipment does NOT form part of the GMDSS equipment?
ANSWER:

Which person would usually guide a SAR operation from start to finish? Select the best option
ANSWER:

Who is responsible for the co-ordination of communications at the scene of a rescue? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

Who is usually responsible for providing the search action plan? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

Who should assess the risks in a search and rescue operation? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

Who should take part in post incident debriefs after an SAR? Select the best option
ANSWER:

Who would you try to inform first if you received a distress message? Select the order that you would try and contact them. A. The RCC responsible for where the incident occurred B. Any RCC which can be reached C. Any communications facility. D. The nearest RCC
ANSWER:

Why is it important to question survivors as soon as possible? Select the best option
ANSWER:

Why must all distress signals be entered into the ship’s log book? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0319 – Periodic maintenance and inspection of lifting equipment

Choose ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘An industry standard…
ANSWER:

Choose ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘An equipment standard can be used…
ANSWER:

Choose ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘A defect found whilst maintaining lifting equipment…
ANSWER:

Choose ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘Information on the periodic inspection of equipment…
ANSWER:

Choose ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘On a vessel the person inspecting lifting equipment…
ANSWER:

Choose ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘On a vessel, correct maintenance of equipment…
ANSWER:

Choose ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘On a vessel, the people responsible for maintenance and inspection of equipment…
ANSWER:

Choose ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘Oil and gas activity is mostly found…
ANSWER:

Choose the ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘The term ‘loose gear’ is used to describe…
ANSWER:

Choose the ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘When maintaining lifting equipment, for other people’s safety always…
ANSWER:

Choose the ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘When maintaining lifting equipment, for your own safety always…
ANSWER:

Choose the ONE option that best completes the following statement. ‘When maintaining lifting equipment, for your own safety always…
ANSWER:

How can a vessel find out if there are any local or regional standards which must be followed? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

How can one standard be applied to all vessel types? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

How many items of lifting equipment do you think there are in this picture?
ANSWER:

If third party lifting equipment is used on a vessel, what should the vessel’s management be told about it? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is a crew person’s responsibility when they are maintaining lifting equipment? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What should a crane be inspected for, before and after use? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

When maintaining equipment in a high place, how are others below the work area best protected? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which one of these statements best describes the term ‘lifting equipment’? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Who should carry out an inspection of lifting equipment on a vessel? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Who should maintain and inspect lifting equipment on a vessel? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why is a daily or periodic inspection of lifting equipment important for crew? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why is it important to have standards for lifting gear inspection and maintenance? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why must an offshore vessel know if there is a regional standard? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0310 – Working at height

How are personnel best protected from an exposed opening? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

How should personnel be protected from work being undertaken above their heads? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

Identify one issue which makes working from a vertical ladder difficult on a vessel? Select the best answer.
ANSWER:

Is it normal to be afraid of heights? Select one of the options.
ANSWER:

Is it safe to carry a bag of tools in your hand, up a vertical ladder? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

Select one option to correctly complete the following statement. ‘A dropped object increases its’…
ANSWER:

Select one option to correctly complete the following statement. ‘When working at height, the safety helmet chin strap…
ANSWER:

Select the one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘A portable ladder…
ANSWER:

Select the one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘A portable ladder…
ANSWER:

Should a powered winch be used to haul a person aloft? Select one option.
ANSWER:

What is the greatest personal risk when working from a stairway on a vessel? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

What should you do with a bosun’s chair before using it? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

When someone is working at height, who is at risk? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

Which of the options correctly describes the minimum load that an anchor point should be able to hold?
ANSWER:

Which of these describes a basic safety harness? Pick the best option.
ANSWER:

Which of these is the correct name for a more advanced safety harness than a simple waist belt? Pick the best option.
ANSWER:

Which one of the options best completes the following statement? ‘A fall arrest anchor point…
ANSWER:

Which one of the options best completes the following statement? ‘Before a basket transfer, personnel…
ANSWER:

Which one of the options correctly completes the following statement? ‘A fall arrest system…
ANSWER:

Which one of the options correctly completes the following statement? ‘A fall restraint…
ANSWER:

Which one of the options correctly completes the following statement? ‘A full body harness…
ANSWER:

Which one of the options correctly describes how a safety harness should be attached to an anchor point?
ANSWER:

Which one of these is an advantage of a full body safety harness compared to a waist belt safety harness?
ANSWER:

Which one of these is an advantage of a full body safety harness compared to a waist belt safety harness?
ANSWER:

Which one of these options best describes a personnel basket transfer?
ANSWER:

Which one of these options best describes how a safety harness should be worn?
ANSWER:

Which one of these options correctly describes a guided fall arrest system?
ANSWER:

Why does a heavy object cause more damage than a light object if dropped from the same height? Select the best answer.
ANSWER:

Why is working at height on a moving vessel more risky than working at height ashore? Select the best option.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0029 – Hull and Machinery

As explained in this module, for which of the following reasons should the Hull and Machinery Insurer be involved in all stages of an insurable incident? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

From the list below, select the type of claims covered by Hull and Machinery insurance (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

In all cases of loss or damage covered by a vessel’s Hull and Machinery policy, what is considered necessary to be able to compile a repair specification and cost estimate? (Select the most applicable answer)
ANSWER:

In documenting repair and yard costs for the purposes of an insurance claim, which of the following are items to be included? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What are the three general “stages” of an incident from an insurance point of view and as described in this module?
ANSWER:

What is an “adjustment” in the context of marine insurance and as outlined in this module?
ANSWER:

What is the essential difference in the way that insurance claims are handled and processed between the Scandinavian system and the British / American system?
ANSWER:

What kind of special deductible is sometimes agreed to?
ANSWER:

Where will primary procedures and reporting forms relating to a ship’s involvement in an “incident” be found?
ANSWER:

Which of the following are obligations on the insured party under the Hull and Machinery policy? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Which of the following is another term for the Hull and Machinery insurer?
ANSWER:

Which of the following might legitimately be granted access to a vessel in her first port of call following involvement in an incident that results in an insurance claim? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

Who commonly collects the settlement from the various insurers?
ANSWER:

Your vessel has been involved in a collision. Damage is limited and she is able to proceed to the next port. Once alongside, a surveyor comes up the gangway and introduces himself as representing the owners of the other ship involved in the collision. How should this person be treated?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0604 – Eye Protection

What is the LIKELY result of having persistent dust, sand or grit in the eye?
ANSWER:

What is the course of action to take in the event of getting a corrosive liquid in your eye?
ANSWER:

What is the potential risk of wearing protective eye glasses? Select the BEST answer.
ANSWER:

What should be done with new protective eye equipment?
ANSWER:

Where can you find additional information on the PPE required for handling a particular chemical?
ANSWER:

Where can you find information on the jobs that require eye protection on board?
ANSWER:

Where should protective eye equipment be stored?
ANSWER:

Which of the following are reasons for wearing eye protection? Select as many answers as you think are correct.
ANSWER:
ANSWER:

Which of the following is NOT a recommended way of removing dust, sand or grit found in the eye?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is a likely consequence of suffering an eye injury when not wearing the required protective eye equipment for the operation?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements is true about crewmembers who normally wear spectacles to see?
ANSWER:

Which of the options BEST completes the following sentence? Any item of equipment found to be damaged or in poor condition… .
ANSWER:

Which option BEST completes the following sentence? As with all PPE, those items used for eye protection should… .
ANSWER:

Which option BEST completes the following sentence? Sharp, intense, bright light will… .
ANSWER:

Why is it important to wear sunglasses when working in a very sunny environment?
ANSWER:

Why must eye protection be worn when operating a drill?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0258 – SEEMP

A review of electrical services on board can reveal the potential for unexpected efficiency gains. Which three of the following forms of modern technology might be employed to increase those savings?
ANSWER:

According to the IMO Guidelines, what should a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) preferably be linked to?
ANSWER:

As described in this training module, how can cargo stowage on board a parcel chemical tanker contribute towards energy efficiency management?
ANSWER:

As part of an Energy Efficiency Management policy, which one of the following might reasonably be expected as a result of an on-board awareness campaign together with training on the fundamentals of the Management Plan?
ANSWER:

As part of each Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP), the ship owner is required to do which one of the following?
ANSWER:

As part of the monitoring step in a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) process, how can any unnecessary additional administrative burden on ships’ staff be avoided?
ANSWER:

As quoted in this training module, what is the other name by which “Just in Time” planning is known when used to optimise the ship’s speed as part of voyage planning and fuel-efficient operations?
ANSWER:

As the amount of CO₂ emitted from a ship is directly related to the consumption of bunker fuel oil, what useful additional information will the Energy Efficiency Operational Indicator (EEOI) deliver to the ship’s managers / operators?
ANSWER:

By what type of method, as explained in this training module, should the energy efficiency of a ship be measured?
ANSWER:

Does sailing at less than optimum speed result in higher fuel consumption?
ANSWER:

Does the Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) have to be a ‘stand-alone’ plan?
ANSWER:

For new ships, the International Energy Efficiency Certificate (IECC) will state the required Energy Efficiency Design Index (EEDI) and which other of the following items of related information?
ANSWER:

From the outset of the planning and implementation of a SEEMP, the company should seek to integrate the relevant parts of which one of the following into its general ship management operations?
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How are optimum ballast conditions primarily achieved?
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How are the tasks defined in the procedures for energy management within a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) implemented on board?
ANSWER:

How can an Integrated Navigation and Command System achieve significant fuel savings as part of an energy efficiency management policy?
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How can the trim of a ship contribute towards a reduction in fuel consumption?
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How might computer software be most effectively used by a shipping company in respect of energy efficiency management, as suggested by this module?
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How might the sourcing of fuel of improved quality, this is of higher calorific value, be of benefit as part of an energy efficiency management process, as explained in this module?
ANSWER:

How should the energy efficiency of a ship be monitored?
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If the Energy Efficiency Operational Indicator (EEOI) is used for the quantitative measurement of a ship’s energy efficiency, which one of the following measurement tools may also be used?
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In addition to both the company and the ship developing procedures for energy efficiency management and defining tasks as part of the Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP), which of the following must also be done?
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In order to maintain efficiency, how should the propulsion system of a vessel be maintained?
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In respect of fuel efficient operations as part of a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP), which one of the following can careful planning and execution of a voyage lead to?
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In respect of the development of a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP), which one of the following statements is correct?
ANSWER:

In respect of the energy efficiency of ships and the initiatives from within the industry to reduce carbon emissions, what do the initials MBM stand for?
ANSWER:

In terms of energy efficiency management, which one of the following is most likely to be a more efficient technique than continuously adjusting the vessel’s speed through engine power?
ANSWER:

In the application of energy saving measures, which one of the following considerations does the IMO “Guidelines for the Development of a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)” identify as paramount?
ANSWER:

In the simplified Energy Efficiency Design Index (EEDI) formula, which one of the following does the unit “CO₂ emission” represent?
ANSWER:

Is there a legal requirement for a ship to keep a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) onboard?
ANSWER:

Is there a legal requirement for ships of 400 gross tonnage and above to have a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan?
ANSWER:

Select the three features from those listed below which may be aimed at the management of energy efficiency on new vessels.
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Self-evaluation and improvement is the final step of the energy efficiency management cycle. It is intended to evaluate the effectiveness of the planned measures and of their implementation, producing a deeper understanding of the ship’s operation and the trend of the efficiency improvement of that ship. But which one of the following best describes the last critical purpose of that step?
ANSWER:

The limits, conditions and ballast management arrangements are always to be observed when determining the optimum ballast conditions. Where are these to be found?
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The selection of the propeller is normally of course made at the design and construction stage of a ship’s life and is beyond the control of the ship’s staff, but what modern design features, as quoted in this training module, could increase propulsive efficiency power and hence reduce fuel consumption?
ANSWER:

The ship’s crew must be able to recognize developing scenarios as they arise and know the appropriate action to take. What should they compare readings from monitoring and measuring equipment to when making these decisions?
ANSWER:

Under many charter parties, the speed of the vessel is determined by the charterer and not the operator. In practical terms and as described in this training module, how then might the owners/ managers and charterers help the ship to maximise energy efficiency?
ANSWER:

What are the four component steps of creating and maintaining a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)?
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What do the letters EEDI stand for in relation to the management of ship’s energy?
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What do the letters EEOI stand for in relation to the management of energy aboard ship?
ANSWER:

What do the letters IEEC stand for in relation to the management of ship’s energy?
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What do waste heat recovery systems capture for the purposes of electricity generation as part of energy efficiency management on board?
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What does optimum speed mean in the context of fuel-efficient operations?
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What does the Energy Efficiency Operational Indicator (EEOI) deliver?
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What is the Energy Efficiency Design Index?
ANSWER:

What is the Energy Efficiency Operational Indicator (EEOI)?
ANSWER:

What is the actual Energy Efficiency Design Index of a ship called?
ANSWER:

What is the extent of the authority of a Port State Control Officer in respect of a vessel’s energy efficiency measures?
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What is the final step in the Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) continuous improvement cycle?
ANSWER:

What is the intended outcome of a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)?
ANSWER:

What is the legal requirement to have a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)?
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What is the maximum Energy Efficiency Design Index (EEDI) limit prescribed in MARPOL known as?
ANSWER:

What is the purpose of a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)?
ANSWER:

What is the significant design feature of a “twist-flow” rudder, as described in this training module, in terms of energy efficiency management?
ANSWER:

What should the self-evaluation and improvement step of a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) deliver?
ANSWER:

What sort of data should be used in the self-evaluation step of a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) process?
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What sort of process is associated with a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)?
ANSWER:

What statutory certification and examination processes will a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) and its associated energy management measures be subject to?
ANSWER:

When considering potential energy efficiency measures in ship design, fuel cell technology delivers an average thermal efficiency of 60%, but what design feature helps to make this figure so high?
ANSWER:

When considering potential energy efficiency measures in ship design, which one of the following is a typical thermal efficiency value achieved by a marine diesel engine?
ANSWER:

Where is the legal requirement to have a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) defined?
ANSWER:

Which Annex of MARPOL 73/78 (as amended) contains the regulations relating to the prevention of air pollution from ships, including the requirements for a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)?
ANSWER:

Which area of regulation has led to the focus on Energy Efficiency and the development of the Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the requirement for goal setting within the Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan process?
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Which of the following describes the key role of the ship’s staff in the creation and development of a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following can a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) form a part of?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following does the IMO “2016 Guidelines for the Development of a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)” specifically recognize that many companies will already have in place?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following factors best facilitates economic voyage planning as part of an energy efficiency management policy?
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Which one of the following is a human resource measure that may be applied as part of a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is an example of common modern energy saving technology that might be included in the design of a new vessel?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is responsible for developing the technical and operational measures related to Energy Efficiency Management, including the Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is responsible for the development of a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP)?
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Which one of the following must a Ship Energy Efficiency Management Plan (SEEMP) be?
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Which one of the following techniques is the most likely way that a saving in fuel consumption could be achieved as a vessel departs port or leaves an estuary?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0264 – Onboard assessment

Assessors should always use best practice when planning and carrying out assessments. Which one of the options explains why this is necessary?
ANSWER:

Different types of oral question can be used to test different levels of cognitive skills. Which of the types given in the options is best suited to test understanding?
ANSWER:

How can learning objectives and performance criteria be used to ensure that assessment is relevant and that all of them are covered within the assessment?
ANSWER:

In relation to assessment of a candidate by direct observation, which of the following statements best describes the environment that the candidate should be required to perform the assessment task in?
ANSWER:

In relation to assessment of a candidate by direct observation, which one of the following statements best describes how an assessor should, wherever possible, select a task for the candidate to perform?
ANSWER:

In relation to assessment of a candidate, which one of the following statements best describes what an assessor should consider when setting the performance criteria for an assessment by direct observation?
ANSWER:

In relation to setting the required performance criteria for assessment of competence or proficiency in a practical skill which one of the following statements is the most accurate?
ANSWER:

In relation to the time and venue chosen for assessment by direct observation of a candidate’s proficiency in performing a practical task, which one of the following statements is correct?
ANSWER:

In relation to the use of convergent questions during oral assessment, which one of the cognitive skill levels given in the options can be best tested using this question type?
ANSWER:

In relation to the use of different oral question types, which one of the following statements is most accurate?
ANSWER:

In relation to the use of divergent questions during oral assessment, which one of the statements given in the options is the most accurate?
ANSWER:

It is a general principle that assessors should produce and keep to an agreed assessment plan when carrying out an assessment by direct observation. Which one of the actions given in the options should an assessor follow if circumstances develop which mean that the assessment plan cannot be followed?
ANSWER:

STCW is the main standard used for the training and certification of seafarers. Which one of the following best describes the main structure of STCW?
ANSWER:

Select from the following options the one which contains the most important criteria when selecting a suitable practical task for testing a candidate when assessing by direct observation of performance.
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Select from the following statements the one which describes the circumstances under which an assessor would be most likely to use pre-assessment and formative assessment in a competency based learning programme.
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Select from the given options the main reason why a written assessment plan or brief should be drawn up as part of the preparation even for an assessment by direct observation?
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Select from the given options the main reason why it is important to limit the expected duration of an assessment during the planning stage?
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Select the option which contains a definition of a question which is classed as a truly convergent question.
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Select the option which contains a definition of a question which is classed as a truly divergent question.
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Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘A candidate’s ability to follow a defined procedure when completing a practical task ….
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Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘When an assessor is selecting the venue for an assessment to take place one of the main considerations is that it….
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Select the statement which best describes how an assessor should act in relation to making a judgement of a candidate’s competence based only on the final product or end result.
ANSWER:

When forming an assessment plan for an assessment by direct observation what would normally be the first thing an assessor should do?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes an inductive question that may be used by an assessor during an oral assessment of a candidate?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to the use of oral questioning and listening techniques by an assessor?
ANSWER:

Which one of the combinations of skills given in the options is best suited to assessment by direct observation rather than by written or oral questioning techniques?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the main limitation, if any, of using only observational methods when carrying out an assessment of a candidate’s competence?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best represents the elements that form part of a competence as required in a competency based learning strategy?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following contains the two methods of assessment most frequently used by an onboard assessor when assessing a candidate during a work activity onboard ship?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements about effective oral assessment to confirm a candidate’s competence is the most accurate?
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Which one of the following statements best describes the main advantages of assessing a candidate performing a normal work activity by using direct observation?
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Which one of the following statements correctly describes competence in a work activity onboard ship?
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Which one of the following statements is the most accurate definition of a good learning objective?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the relationship between learning objectives or performance criteria and assessments in a competency-based programme of learning?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options can be considered as a key element of a good oral questioning technique to be used by an assessor following an assessment by direct observation?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options is an accurate definition of the term ‘inductive reasoning’?
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Which one of the given options is the main reason why the use of leading questions should be avoided by an assessor when testing candidates using oral questions?
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Which one of the options identifies the most important action that an assessor can take to ensure that a candidate is suitably relaxed for an assessment by direct observation?
ANSWER:

Which one of the options should be considered as the main purpose of a post assessment debrief, following an assessment by direct observation?
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Which one of the statements given in the options describes one of the main responsibilities of a candidate for assessment by direct observation?
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Which one of the statements given in the options is correct in relation to individuals who have responsibility for assessing seafarers onboard ship?
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Which one of the statements given in the options is the best description of the term ‘performance criteria’ in relation to assessment in competency based programme of learning?
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Which one of the statements given in the options is the main reason for an assessor to use both inductive and deductive types of question during oral testing of a candidate?
ANSWER:

With reference to an assessor including arrangements for providing feedback to the candidate in their assessment plan, which one of the following statements is correct?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0263 – Principles of assessment

An assessor suspects that there has been collaboration between candidates in an assessment that was intended to assess the individuals’ knowledge or skill. Which one of the following actions is most likely to determine if collaboration has taken place?
ANSWER:

Are there any advantages in using oral questioning when assessing a candidate on a one to one basis?
ANSWER:

Bloom’s taxonomy divides skills into three domains. Which one of the domains identified in the options deals mainly with knowledge and understanding?
ANSWER:

How can oral questioning be used to confirm a candidate’s competence following an assessment by direct observation in which they have performed a practical task?
ANSWER:

In relation to a programme of learning, select from the following the one which identifies when formative assessment would normally take place?
ANSWER:

In relation to assessing a candidate’s language skills, which one of the following is best suited for assessment by oral questioning?
ANSWER:

In relation to assessment by direct observation, why is it important that the assessor clearly defines the required performance criteria?
ANSWER:

In relation to assessment of learners, which one of the following is usually considered as the main purpose of using summative assessment?
ANSWER:

In relation to assessment, what is meant by the term ‘fairness’?
ANSWER:

In relation to direct observation of a candidate, which one of the following is correct regarding any limitations of using this method of assessment?
ANSWER:

In relation to formative and summative assessment, which one of the following statements is true?
ANSWER:

In relation to the analyses of assessment results, which of the following can be considered necessary in order to ensure that any analyses is meaningful?
ANSWER:

In relation to the assessment of seafarers, which of the following can be easily assessed using multiple choice type questions?
ANSWER:

In relation to the assessment of seafarers, which of the following can be fully assessed using questions that require written descriptive answers?
ANSWER:

In relation to the assessment of seafarers, which one of the following can written assignments and projects be best used to provide?
ANSWER:

It is the responsibility of an assessor to ensure that the candidate is provided with full information regarding the assessment. Which one of the following statements best describes the responsibility that the candidate has regarding this information?
ANSWER:

One reason why an assessor needs to produce a marking scheme when preparing an assessment is to indicate the mark allocation to the candidate. Which one of the following is another important reason for having a detailed marking scheme?
ANSWER:

Oral questioning can be used by an assessor to fully assess a candidate’s affective skills.’ Is this statement accurate?
ANSWER:

STCW is the main standard used for training of seafarers and contains a series of competence tables which should be the main source for defining competence requirements. Select from the following elements of the competence tables the one that is most likely to be used to determine learning objectives?
ANSWER:

Select from the following statements the one that is the most accurate in relation to the term ‘assessment for learning’.
ANSWER:

Select from the following statements the one which is the main reason why it is important to have a suitable marking scheme for an assessment?
ANSWER:

Select from the following the most appropriate assessment method that can be used by an assessor to assess knowledge?
ANSWER:

Select from the following the most appropriate assessment method that can be used by an assessor to assess understanding or comprehension?
ANSWER:

Select from the following the one which is correct in relation to the importance of the timing of an assessment and the reason why it is important.
ANSWER:

Select from the options given the one that best defines a learning outcome in relation to a programme of learning.
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Select from the options given the one that best describes the main characteristics of a learning objective.
ANSWER:

Select from the options the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. ‘A programme of learning can be defined as…
ANSWER:

Select the statement which best describes how an assessor should act in relation to making a judgement of a candidate’s competence based purely on the final product or end result.
ANSWER:

Select, from the following statements, the one which is the main purpose of including pre-assessment in a programme of learning?
ANSWER:

Select, from the following statements, the one which is the most accurate in relation to mark allocation in an assessment marking scheme?
ANSWER:

Select, from the following, the phrase which correctly completes the following statement. ‘If an assessor uses an inappropriate level of language during an assessment …
ANSWER:

Select, from the following, the statement which best describes the circumstances under which an onboard assessor would normally use formative assessment?
ANSWER:

Select, from the phrases given in the options, the one that correctly completes the following statement. ‘An assessment strategy is said to be reliable when…
ANSWER:

Select, from the phrases given in the options, the one that correctly completes the following statement. ‘An assessment strategy is said to have transparency…
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Select, from the phrases given in the options, the one that most accurately completes the following statement. ‘An assessment strategy can be said to be valid if…
ANSWER:

Summative assessment is usually carried out either at the end of a programme of learning or as each section of the programme is completed. Which one of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to summative assessment?
ANSWER:

When assessing a candidate’s affective skills, which one of the following are the best methods for an assessor to use?
ANSWER:

When assessing a candidate’s psychomotor skills, which one of the following is the most appropriate for an assessor to employ?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the main reason why the duration of an assessment should be limited?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the most appropriate method that an assessor can use to test a candidate’s ability to apply knowledge or understanding?
ANSWER:

Which of the following most accurately defines the term ‘collaboration’ in relation to assessment of candidates?
ANSWER:

Which of the following most accurately defines the term ‘plagiarism’ in relation to assessment of a candidate?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to assessment by direct observation?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to candidates’ actions in an assessment?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to using oral questioning in a group assessment situation?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements most accurately describes learning that is referred to as ‘associative learning’?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes a performance improvement plan that is drawn up following an assessment?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following criteria can be used to determine the reliability of an assessment?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following criteria can be used to determine the validity of an assessment strategy?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is ‘assessment by direct observation’ the best method of assessment for an assessor to use?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the main limitation of using oral questioning for a group assessment?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the use of ‘open book’ tests best suited for assessing?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the value of self assessment by a candidate during a programme of learning?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is most accurate in relation to an assessor’s preparation for assessment of a candidate by direct observation?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is most accurate in relation to the use of oral questions for group assessment?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to a person who is given a completely new work role?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to assessment of competence?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to assessment of the competence of a group of candidates?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to the limitations of using oral questioning when assessing a candidate?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to the potential for assessment to encourage learning?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given statements is the most accurate in relation to the learning objectives used in a programme of learning?
ANSWER:

Which one of the phrases given in the options correctly completes the following statement? ‘Associative learning is improved by feedback from assessment which…
ANSWER:

Which one of the phrases given in the options most accurately completes the following statement? ‘Feedback to a candidate following assessment is important because…
ANSWER:

Why is it important that assessors follow best practice when planning and carrying out an observational assessment?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0349 – Bulk Carriers, Unloading

According to the BLU Manual, what is the definition of a ‘terminal’? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

During the unloading of a bulk carrier, when should ‘trimming’ of the cargo be started? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How can ship’s officers show that they have been diligent in keeping the ship cargo-worthy? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

How is the heavy ballast condition normally achieved? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

If stevedore damage is seen to be relatively minor, such as small indentations to plating, what repair action is necessary? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Outside of MARPOL Annex V Special Areas, what is the general rule for discharging none HME cargo residues and wash water? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

The BLU Manual is a supplement to which Code? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

The Master usually delegates the responsibility for producing the Unloading Plan. Who does the Master delegate this to? Select the ONE correct answer
ANSWER:

What action should the Master take if cargo damage is reported during the unloading? Select the ONE best answer
ANSWER:

What action should the OOW take if they see large amounts of cargo leaking from the grabs during unloading? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What actions should the OOW take if they suspect that the Unloading Plan is not being followed to any significant extent? Select the ONE correct answer
ANSWER:

What can happen if a ballasted hold is de-ballasted without opening the Pressure/Vacuum (PV) valves in the hatch covers? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What guidance is there on the pre-arrival information exchange from ship to terminal? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What guidance is there on the pre-arrival information exchange from terminal to ship? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is gravity ballasting? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is recommended prior to opening the hatch covers if water-sensitive cargo is being carried? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the best way for an OOW to monitor for stevedore damage? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the definition of ‘wash water’ under MARPOL Annex V? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the expected accuracy of a well-conducted pre-load draught survey? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the most common ship-based cargo weight determination method for commercial purposes? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the purpose of the Ship Shore Safety Checklist? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the usual level of filling of a floodable hold? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What percentage of the loaded ballast draught is the light ballast draught? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What records should the ship obtain if damage to the cargo is seen during unloading? Select all answers that you think apply.
ANSWER:

What should be done before the hatch covers are opened if there is water or debris on top of the covers? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What should the OOW do if they think that it will soon start to rain or snow and a water-sensitive cargo is being unloaded? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What tools do the ship’s officers have for producing the Unloading Plan? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When is the Ship Shore Safety Checklist signed by the ship and terminal representatives? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Where are the regulations covering the discharge of hold cargo residues and wash water? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where can details of the standard Ship Shore Safety Checklist be found? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where does grab damage mostly occur during the final, trimming stage of unloading? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where does grab damage mostly occur during the first stage of unloading? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where would you find the planned ballast sequence? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which of the following are ‘continuous unloaders’? Select any answers that you think are correct.
ANSWER:

Which one of the following cargo types would you expect to be discharged by pneumatic elevator? Select the ONE correct answer
ANSWER:

Which one of the following cargo types would you expect to be discharged by pneumatic elevator? Select the ONE correct answer
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is an acceptable shore-based cargo measurement method? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Who is responsible for monitoring the Unloading Plan during unloading? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Who is responsible for producing the stevedore damage report? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Who is responsible for real time monitoring of the Unloading Plan? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why is the maximum permissible height from the waterline to the top of the hatch coamings or hatch covers included in the pre-arrival information? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why is wire cutting type damage to the compression bar on the coaming to be avoided? Select the ONE correct answer?
ANSWER:

Why might it be of benefit for the crew to join in trimming the holds during unloading? Select the ONE best answer
ANSWER:

Why should pendulum swinging of the grab be avoided? Select the TWO best answers.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0348 – Bulk carrier voyage

According to the IMSBC Code, what is the acceptable limit on methane concentration in the space above a coal cargo? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

According to this module, what is expected to eventually replace ballast water exchange operations? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How can high acidity of the water in the bilges be detected? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

How can the rate of hold flooding be quickly estimated using the Water Ingress Detector System? Select the ONE best answer
ANSWER:

How is the Dew Point found? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

If a self-heating cargo is quickly increasing in temperature and smoke is seen at the hatches, who should the Master first inform? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

In what circumstances must the hatch covers be fully secured before leaving the berth? Select any answers that you think apply.
ANSWER:

In which ONE of the following circumstances would weather routeing services be most helpful? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Is the Master required to follow weather routeing advice provided by the charterer? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Is ventilation always carried out during loaded voyages? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Outside of MARPOL Annex V Special Areas, what is the general rule for discharging none HME cargo residues and wash water? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What action should be taken if bilge water levels are rising, or ballast tank levels are changing unexpectedly? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What are the main types of test for weather tightness of hatch covers? Select any answers that you think are correct.
ANSWER:

What is the ‘three degree’ rule for cargoes that can absorb water? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the Relative Humidity at the dew point? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the biggest risk when using the flow-through ballast water exchange method? Select the ONE best answer
ANSWER:

What is the definition of ‘wash water’ under MARPOL Annex V? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the greatest risk when methane is given off by coal cargoes? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the preferred location for ballast water exchange? Select the ONE correct answer?
ANSWER:

What is the purpose of Water Ingress Detector Systems fitted to bulk carriers? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What percentage of ballast water needs to be exchanged during sequential ballast exchange? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When is the best time for the Chief Officer to carry out the final inspection of the holds prior to arrival at the loading port? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where can guidance on ventilation of cargoes be found? Select the ONE correct answer
ANSWER:

Where can the Master find advice on fumigation of cargoes? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Where can the regulations and guidelines relating to ballast water management be found? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where should details of the ballast water exchange be recorded? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these circumstances would cause ‘cargo sweat’ to occur in a hold? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these circumstances would cause ‘ship’s sweat’ to occur in a hold? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these circumstances would cause sweat to occur in a hold? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which of the following amounts of ballast would give the ‘heavy ballast’ condition? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is a typical minimum forward draught? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the main disadvantage of the sequential ballast water exchange method? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Whose direct responsibility is it to ensure that the hatch covers are properly secured prior to proceeding to sea? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why are daily soundings of hold bilges required during the ballast voyage? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why does the atmosphere above a coal cargo need to be monitored. Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why is it important to keep good records of all ventilation during the voyage? Select the ONE correct answer
ANSWER:

Why is regular measurement of hold temperatures necessary when carrying cargoes such as coal or grain? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

With the exception of Australia, how many insects (dead or alive) in a hold will make it unfit to load a grain cargo? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0347 – Bulk carriers, Trim and stability

According to the International Grain Code, how many partly filled holds should a bulk carrier have? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

An angle of loll occurs due to cargo fluidisation. There is fuel in a deep tank and a free surface in fuel double bottom tanks. How could ship stability be improved? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

An angle of loll occurs due to cargo fluidisation. Which split double bottom tanks should be filled first in order to improve the ship’s stability? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

At what minimum angle must the maximum GZ occur for a bulk carrier? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

At what point is the True Mean Draught always measured? Select the ONE correct answer
ANSWER:

How are untrimmed hold ends dealt with by the authorities in the USA, Canada and Australia? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How can a Water Ingress Detector indicate the rate of flooding? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How can the KG be determined for any loading condition of a bulk carrier? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How can the value of GZ be found from the value of KN at any value of heel, Theeta?
ANSWER:

How do the USA, Canada and Australia differ from the International Grain Code requirements in respect of stability calculations? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How is a Maximum KG diagram used? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How is the actual Grain Heeling Moment found for the whole ship? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How is the actual Grain Heeling Moment found for the whole ship? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How is the reliability of a loading instrument checked? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

If an approved loading Instrument is provided onboard, does this make the loading manual redundant? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

In the International Grain Code, what does the term ‘Filled compartment – trimmed’ mean? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

In the International Grain Code, what does the term ‘Filled compartment – untrimmed’ mean? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

In the International Grain Code, what does the term ‘specially suitable compartment’ mean? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Is it necessary to keep records of loading conditions that have been computed on a loading instrument? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

The ship is travelling at a constant speed and heading with respect to the waves. What can a slowing down of the ship’s roll period indicate? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What are Volumetric Heeling Moments? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What does the term ‘fluid GM’ mean? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What extent of grain shifting is assumed when calculating Volumetric Heeling Moments? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What intact stability requirements must a ship carrying grain comply with? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is KN? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the First Trim Correction also known as? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the Fresh Water Allowance? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the Grain Heeling Moment? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the best measure of stability at angles of heel greater than ten degrees? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the effect of a very large GM? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the main thing to avoid when a ship has developed an angle of loll? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the maximum permissible angle of heel after grain shifting has been calculated? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the minimum GM (fluid) permitted by the Load Line Convention? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the name given to the difference between the draught at the midships point and the draught at the Longitudinal Centre of Flotation? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the usual angle of repose for a grain cargo? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the usual measure of initial stability on a ship? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What simple alternative is available for assessing the ship’s stability without having to draw a GZ curve? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What size of ship does the International Grain Code apply to? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What will the Master particularly have to demonstrate to the national authorities prior to loading grain? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Where are the minimum standards for ship stability defined? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following is correct?
ANSWER:

Why is it important to calculate the stability for the arrival condition before departure? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT4014 – JRC ECDIS

How can an operator view loaded chart file names on the ECDIS? Select one of the given options.
ANSWER:

If the cursor has changed to that shown, select the one correct option that explains what the cursor would now be used for.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘The JRC ECDIS can be set to alarm if an AIS target infringes set limits’.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘An event mark will always be seen on the chart display’.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘Manual chart updates can only be installed with the ECDIS in ‘Chart manager’ mode’.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘NAVTEX messages can be saved in the logbook recording’.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘The ECDIS automatic route safety check is sufficient to see all dangers with the planned route’.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘The size of the text fonts describing a lighthouse can be changed’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘The volume of the alarm cannot be altered.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘There is only one button to stop the ECDIS alarm’.
ANSWER:

Select an option that correctly completes the following statement. ‘If the chart in use does not have a depth contour of the same value as the safety contour set…
ANSWER:

Select an option that correctly completes the following statement. ‘If there is no hardware key board fitted…
ANSWER:

Select an option that correctly explains the function of the ‘HOME’ button on the operation panel.
ANSWER:

Select from the given options the correct meaning of the symbol in the illustration.
ANSWER:

Select from the given options the result of clicking the ‘reset hide’ button in the manual chart update menu.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options that correctly complete the following statement. ‘For full danger protection a vessel…
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options that correctly describe how the depth values are shown when they have a value below the safety depth setting.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options that correctly explain the use of the ‘auto sail’ settings when the vessel is under track control (TCS).
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options that correctly explain what the red circle surrounding the vessel symbol represents on the following illustration.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options that correctly explain why the red anchor swinging circle in not centred on the vessel symbol but offset a small distance.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options that correctly explains the ‘associate’ function on the target menu
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options that would activate the danger detection function on the JRC ECDIS.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options to correctly complete the following statement. ‘On the 901B and 701B models the normal setting on the drive organisation tab for the ‘D’ and ‘E’ drives is to…
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options to correctly complete the following statement. ‘When a pre-planned route is loaded it…
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options to correctly complete the following statement. ‘When the ECDIS is in TCS mode following a route, the course change alert…
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options to correctly describe how to set the ECDIS to be able to see the Admiralty Information Overlay on the display.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options to correctly explain where the man overboard button is located.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options to correctly explain why an event mark may not be seen on the chart display.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options to correctly identify the function of the following icon seen on the chart information part of the menu panel.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options to correctly identify the function of the red ‘pizza’ shape in the illustration.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options to correctly identify the two methods of ETA calculation used on the JRC ECDIS.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options to explain the use of the ‘auto detect’ button on the ECDIS chart portfolio menu.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options which best describes a ‘normal’ route on the JRC ECDIS.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options which best describes the large red circle seen in the following illustration.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options which best describes the meaning of the extra line created just before a waypoint, in the same direction as the next course, on a TCS route.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options which best describes the small blue circle seen in the following illustration.
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options which correctly complete the following statement. ‘The man overboard function is removed…
ANSWER:

Select one of the given options which correctly describe the meaning of a ‘limit check’ on a TCS route stored on a JRC ECDIS.
ANSWER:

Select one option correctly describing the use of the red box surrounding the ship symbol seen in the illustration
ANSWER:

Select one option that best explains the significance of the letter ‘P’ alongside the tracked radar target in the illustration.
ANSWER:

Select one option that correctly explains the meaning of the word ‘hand’ when seen on the menu panel.
ANSWER:

Select one option to correctly explain why the over scale ‘prison bars’ warning can be seen on one half of a chart display only.
ANSWER:

Select one option which best describes the ‘zoom area’ function.
ANSWER:

Select one option which best explains the significance of the letter ‘D’ alongside EBL1 in the illustration.
ANSWER:

Select one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘The ECDIS alarm is acknowledged…
ANSWER:

Select one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘The offset VRM and EBL can be returned to the CCRP…
ANSWER:

Select one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘User created areas…
ANSWER:

Select one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘User created lines will…
ANSWER:

Select one option which correctly explains the function of a ‘user map’.
ANSWER:

Select one option which correctly explains the use of the ‘running fix’ function on the JRC ECDIS.
ANSWER:

Select one option which correctly explains why sometimes two ship outlines can be seen, one black the other orange.
ANSWER:

Select one option which correctly explains why the alarm button located on the menu panel is in two parts.
ANSWER:

Select one option which correctly explains why the illustrated alert has been activated.
ANSWER:

Select one option which correctly identifies the meaning of the letters ‘TCS’ in the following illustration.
ANSWER:

Select one option which explains the use of the ‘rotation’ function with the ECDIS set in true motion, north up.
ANSWER:

Select the correct option to complete the statement correctly. On start-up a JRC ECDIS will go into ‘ ……’ automatically if no other function is selected from the four button menu.
ANSWER:

Select the one given option that best explains the function of the AIS filter.
ANSWER:

Select the one given option which correctly describes how to obtain information from the ECDIS on the loaded chart.
ANSWER:

Select the one given option which correctly describes the man overboard button symbol seen on the chart display.
ANSWER:

Select the one option from those given which correctly completes the following statement. ‘To display all information on the chart…
ANSWER:

Select the one option from those given which explains why in the ‘chart settings’ menu some items have the letter ‘S’ against them.
ANSWER:

Select the one option that best describes the use of the ‘port list’ on a JRC ECDIS.
ANSWER:

Select the one option that best describes the ‘priority’ function seen on the AIS target menu of the JRC ECDIS.
ANSWER:

Select the one option that correctly completes the following statement. ‘A yellow alert is raised over a chart scale when…
ANSWER:

Select the one option that correctly completes the following statement. ‘An AIS target will be left sleeping if…
ANSWER:

Select the one option that correctly completes the following statement. ’An offset value applied to the incoming GPS position changes it to the…
ANSWER:

Select the one option that correctly explains the function of the ‘PANEL’ button seen on the operation panel.
ANSWER:

Select the one option that correctly explains the function of the ‘VIDEO’ button on the operation panel.
ANSWER:

Select the one option that correctly explains why a white arrow is sometimes seen alongside an item in a drop down menu.
ANSWER:

Select the one option that correctly states how many AIS targets the JRC ECDIS is capable of displaying.
ANSWER:

Select the one option which best completes the following statement. ‘When importing routes from a USB memory stick…
ANSWER:

Select the one option which best describes how the second EBL is distinguished from the first EBL.
ANSWER:

Select the one option which best describes when the display is ‘course-up’ how the ship’s head automatically resets towards the top of the screen.
ANSWER:

Select the one option which best explains the function of the ‘view sync’ seen in the waypoint table.
ANSWER:

Select the one option which best explains the quickest way to browse around a chart on the JRC ECDIS.
ANSWER:

Select the one option which best explains why a leg of the loaded route shows as an enlarged red line.
ANSWER:

Select the one option which best explains why a section of a depth contour shows as an enlarged black line.
ANSWER:

Select the one option which best explains why a waypoint detail has a red coloured font in the waypoint table.
ANSWER:

Select the one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘Clicking on the ‘alarm list’ button…
ANSWER:

Select the one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘The word ‘free’ when seen on the display panel indicates that…
ANSWER:

Select the one option which correctly describes the normal appearance of the cursor.
ANSWER:

Select the one option which correctly explains the use of the icon with the red exclamation mark seen in the illustration.
ANSWER:

Select the one option which correctly explains where the readouts for the VRM and EBL are located.
ANSWER:

Select the one option which correctly explains why the position information, seen on the top right hand side of the menu panel, has a blue background.
ANSWER:

Select the option that best completes the following statement. ‘The JRC ECDIS computer is started with…
ANSWER:

Select the option that correctly completes the following statement. ‘Before chart cell permits are loaded…
ANSWER:

Select the option that correctly completes the following statement. ‘The 901B ECDIS has…
ANSWER:

Select the option that correctly completes the following statement. ‘The JRC web site should be…
ANSWER:

Select the option that correctly completes the following statement. ‘The chart portfolio window gives access to…
ANSWER:

Select the option which best describes how the screen brilliance is adjusted on a JRC ECDIS.
ANSWER:

Select the two options which correctly complete the following statement. ‘The ship symbol is returned to the display screen by…
ANSWER:

Select two of the given options that each correctly complete the following statement. ‘The ‘safety check’ button…
ANSWER:

Select two options that correctly complete the following statement. ‘The EBL can…
ANSWER:

Select two options that correctly complete the following statement. ‘The VRM can…
ANSWER:

Select two options which correctly identify the significance of a tick in the box alongside the function ‘check safety in editing’ shown in the following illustration.
ANSWER:

Some AIS targets set off an alarm even when they are outside the geographical limits set. Select one option to best explain this.
ANSWER:

The danger detection box is not visible surrounding the ship symbol in the illustration; does this mean danger detection is not active? Select one of the given options that correctly answer the question.
ANSWER:

The illustration shows a section of chart with orange cross lines inside the 10 metre contour. Select one of the given options to correctly explain why these are seen.
ANSWER:

When a route safety check is completed with an ECDIS set in ‘base’ display how does the check highlight a dangerous but invisible object? Select one of the given options.
ANSWER:

When the ECDIS is in TCS mode following a route, there is an extra alert compared to following a ‘normal’ route. Select the one given option that correctly identifies this alert.
ANSWER:

When would an operator change a sensor signal from the LAN to a local port? Select one option for your answer.
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the content stored on the ‘D’ drive of the JRC 901B or 701B ECDIS computer?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the content stored on the ‘E’ drive of the JRC 901B and 701B ECDIS computer?
ANSWER:

Why do some items in the ‘chart settings’ menu have the letter ‘O’ against them? Select the one correct option from those given.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0232 – High Voltage, Equipment and testing

A fault within a high voltage starter panel could lead to an explosion. Which of the following is the sort of fault that could cause an explosion? Tick all that apply.
ANSWER:

After maintenance of high voltage equipment has been completed the person carrying out the work is often asked to sign the Permit to Work before the permit is cancelled. Which one of the following best describes what the person is signing for?
ANSWER:

High voltage switchgear is often provided with busbar shutters. Which one of the following best describes why these are fitted?
ANSWER:

If isolation is not thorough, which of the following is the most dangerous stage in making a piece of high voltage electrical equipment safe to work on, according to this module?
ANSWER:

Insulation readings for high voltage equipment are sometimes used to calculate a polarisation index. Which one of the following is the value of polarisation index which is normally considered to be the lowest acceptable before investigation of the condition of the insulation is recommended?
ANSWER:

Is it possible to get a Sanction to Test permit issued for a piece of high voltage equipment when a Permit to Work has not been issued for that equipment?
ANSWER:

Maintenance of high voltage equipment has been completed and the Permit to Work cancelled. Which one of the following best describes what needs to be done to put the equipment back into service?
ANSWER:

On low voltage electrical systems insulation is normally tested using voltages above the normal rated supply voltage of the equipment. Which one of the following best describes why high voltage insulation is normally tested using a voltage below the normal rated supply voltage?
ANSWER:

Some insulation test meters for high voltage equipment are fitted with a 3rd lead, often called a ‘guard’. Which one of the following best describes the reason for using the guard lead?
ANSWER:

The electrician has been issued with a Permit to Work on the high voltage thruster starter. Which one of the following best describes why he may also require a Sanction to Test Permit?
ANSWER:

When measuring the insulation resistance of high voltage equipment a ‘polarisation index’ test may be used. Which one of the following best describes what a ‘polarisation index’ is?
ANSWER:

When working on high voltage electrical equipment 3 phase portable earthing connectors might be fitted. In what order should these be connected?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes one of the most important reasons for using high voltage electricity on a ship?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the voltage above which electricity is considered to be high voltage according to this module?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes a method which can be used to continuously monitor high voltage electrical machinery for insulation condition?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the action to take if the polarisation index calculated from insulation readings on a piece of high voltage equipment has risen by 35% in 6 months?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the function of the insulating hooks often found near high voltage electrical switchboards?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the main advantage in using high voltage electricity through a ‘step up’ system from low voltage generators?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the main reason why the azimuth thrusters used for propulsion on some ships are normally supplied with high voltage electricity?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the meaning of the term ‘disconnected’ in relation to high voltage electrical systems?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the meaning of the term ‘tracking’ when applied to high voltage electrical systems?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the possible effect of supplying a solid insulator with a voltage above that for which it was designed?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the possible effect of the air between conductors becoming ionised?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the process of drawing up and implementing a switching plan when connecting or disconnecting high voltage electrical equipment?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the reason for ‘dissipating’ charge from high voltage electrical systems?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the role of fresh air within high voltage switchboards?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes what someone issued with a Limitation of Access Permit is allowed to do in relation to high voltage electrical systems?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes what will happen if a low impedance connection is accidently created across a charged capacitor within a high voltage electrical network?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes what you should do after you have got together the protective, test or other equipment which is to be used during work on a high voltage electrical system?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why extra care should be taken when preparing a high voltage transformer circuit to be worked on after it has been fully isolated?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why high voltage (HV) cables tend to store electrical charge?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why it is important for someone to read the detailed risk assessment for the job before they start work on high voltage equipment?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why it is necessary to record insulation readings taken from high voltage equipment after a fixed period of test time?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why it is normal practice to place the high voltage (Hi-pot) tester back in its test unit after a circuit has been tested as being dead?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why someone on a high voltage ship may want to use a ‘multilock’?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why the earth connections applied to high voltage circuits while maintenance is being carried out are of much larger diameter than those typically used in low voltage lighting circuits?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why, when taking insulation readings from high voltage cables, the reading is poor to start with but usually gets better quite quickly?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following describes the best way for the person assigned to carry out work on high voltage equipment to ensure that the equipment will remain dead until their Permit to Work is withdrawn?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following describes the best way for the person assigned to carry out work on high voltage equipment to ensure that the switching plan has been properly carried out?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is normally the first person to touch the conductors of high voltage equipment after they have been made safe to work on?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the best definition of the term “harmonics” when used in relation to high voltage electricity?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the best reason for using thermal imaging equipment during maintenance of a high voltage switchboard?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the main reason why you may be sent to stay with the motorman while he paints the high voltage switchboard room?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options correctly indicates the difference in size between an 800 kW electric motor supplied at 6.6 kV and another 800 kW electric motor supplied at 440 V?
ANSWER:

While conducting maintenance on a high voltage transformer you need to swap your Permit to Work for a Sanction to Test Permit. Which one of the following best describes the position at the time of changeover between permits?
ANSWER:

With regard to the management of high voltage electrical systems, which one of the following best describes the difference between an ‘Authorised Person’ and a ‘Senior Authorised Person’, as stated in this module?
ANSWER:

You are carrying out an internal examination of a high voltage switchboard. Which one of the following best describes the faults that might be detected using your sense of smell?
ANSWER:

You have been appointed the Competent Person for checking a high voltage distribution cable. While accompanying the authorised person you see that the high voltage (Hi-pot) tester shows a voltage is present when the cable is tested to see if it is dead. Which one of the following best describes the action you should take?
ANSWER:

You have been appointed the Competent Person for checking a high voltage motor of a cargo pump. While accompanying the Authorised Person you see that the high voltage (Hi-pot) tester shows a voltage is present when the motor is being tested to see if it is dead. The voltage falls away to zero within 2 seconds. Which one of the following best describes what you should do before signing the Permit to Work to say that you are satisfied with the safety arrangements?
ANSWER:

Your ship has been sent a circular from the company warning of problems on the distribution boards on your sister ship. You have been issued with a Permit to Work for the port aft high voltage distribution board but you are not sure what needs to be done. What should you do?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0233 – High Voltage, Management on Ships

A 3 phase AC generator is supplying a high voltage switchboard at 11,000 Volts, and has a synchronous impedance of 0.5 Ohms. A solid, symmetrical three phase, short circuit occurs at point A. What is the prospective fault current through circuit breaker B1?

ANSWER:

A joint between one supply cable conductor and its terminal on a 6.6 kiloVolt electric motor has a resistance of 2 milli-Ohms. If a short circuit current of 20,000 Amps flows through the joint how much heat is generated at the joint?
ANSWER:

A man with dry hands accidently touches an electrical conductor at 50 Volts. Which of the following is the most likely result of this?
ANSWER:

Can HV sub-station (P) be supplied via the Starboard side of the ring main while the Port side is isolated?
ANSWER:

Electrical circuit breakers can protect against a number of types of fault. Which of the following are the faults that can be used to operate a circuit breaker? Tick all that apply.
ANSWER:

Excessive temperatures can lead to insulation damage and even fires. Which of the following can lead to excessive temperatures in electrical equipment? Tick all that apply.
ANSWER:

High voltage Permits to Work vary but all should include key information. Which of the items of key information listed should be on any HV Permit to Work? Tick all those that apply.
ANSWER:

In relation to electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes the relationship between current levels and overheating in a conductor?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes how equipment designers try to deal with the effects of blast following short circuits?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes how the maximum safe exposure time to electricity changes with relation to its voltage level?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes the main danger from a conductor which becomes overheated?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes the main way to ensure workers do not suffer high voltage electric shock while working out of sight of the circuit main earth?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes the meaning of ‘dead’?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes the meaning of ‘disconnected’?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes the purpose of a ‘Limitation of Access’ Permit?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes the purpose of a ‘danger notice’?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes the reason for getting a Sanction to Test Permit issued?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes the reason why arcs are dangerous to people who can see them?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical equipment, which one of the following best describes when fuses may be used to protect circuits rather than circuit breakers?
ANSWER:

In relation to high voltage electrical networks, which one of the following best describes the most likely place to find a circuit main earth?
ANSWER:

It is common on ships which generate at high voltage to supply the low voltage services via 2 transformers which can be interconnected on the low voltage side via a bus-tie circuit breaker. Which of the following best describes why it is not normal practice to operate with the low voltage bus-tie closed?
ANSWER:

Most high voltage systems on ships will have their neutral permanently connected to earth, unlike low voltage systems. Which of the following best describes how earth fault currents are limited on neutral earthed systems?
ANSWER:

Most high voltage systems on ships will have their neutral permanently connected to earth, unlike low voltage systems. Which of the following best describes the reason for this?
ANSWER:

On some high voltage systems circuit breakers may operate automatically to re-route power supplies. Which of the following best describes when this might be programmed to happen?
ANSWER:

Overcurrent protection devices are normally chosen after comparing two capacity ratings – Rated current capacity and Breaking capacity. Which of these capacities is higher?
ANSWER:

The STCW Code has recommendations for the training of engineering personnel having management responsibilities for the operation and safety of electrical power plant above 1,000 Volts. Which of the following is the commonly used name for persons trained to this level?
ANSWER:

The high rupture capacity (HRC) fuses used in low voltage systems look similar to high voltage (HV) fuses. Which one of the following best describes the main difference between them?
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The processes for issuing a high voltage Permit to Work and a Sanction to Test Permit are similar, as are the form layouts normally. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the two permits?
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Two identical generators are supplying a high voltage switchboard at 3,300 Volts, each with a synchronous impedance of 0.5 Ohms, when a solid, symmetrical three phase, short circuit occurs at point A. What is the prospective fault current through circuit breaker B1?
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Which of the following are possible causes of voltage overload in high voltage electrical systems? Tick all those that apply.
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Which of the following are the main sources of increased danger from high voltage (HV) over low voltage (LV) electricity? Tick all the answers that apply.
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Which of the following best describes how the condition of the inert gas in a circuit breaker is monitored after it is put into service?
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Which of the following best describes the best action to take after a high voltage circuit breaker has opened under fault conditions and the current broken is suspected to have been in excess of the breaker’s continuous rated current capacity?
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Which of the following best describes the normal way to ensure that high voltage equipment is ready to be reconnected to the supply following maintenance?
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Which of the following best describes the reason why care must be taken when handling or overhauling gas filled circuit breakers?
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Which of the following best describes why more than one Competent Person may be needed to put a high voltage switching plan into effect?
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Which of the following best describes why the prospective fault current levels should not be reached in a real world short circuit situation?
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Which of the following describes how isolated high voltage electrical equipment can be changed from a ‘charged’ to a ‘discharged’ state?
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Which of the following describes one of the main reasons for having a switching plan drawn up and approved on high voltage ships?
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Which of the following is the name of the gas most commonly used in the inert gas filled circuit breakers used on ships’ high voltage systems?
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Which one of the following best describes one of the main criteria to be used when an Authorised Person decides whether to issue someone with a Limitation of Access Permit to enter a high voltage switchboard room?
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Which one of the following best describes the basic principle for deciding where protective devices should be positioned within an electrical network?
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Which one of the following best describes the difference between an Authorised Person (AP) and a Senior Authorised Person (SAP)?
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Which one of the following best describes the main criteria to be used when an Authorised Person chooses a Competent Person to carry out maintenance on, or switching of, high voltage equipment?
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Which one of the following best describes the reason for using vacuum circuit breakers in high voltage (HV) networks instead of the air circuit breakers normally used for low voltage (LV) networks?
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Which one of the following best describes the resistance reading of the human body when tested at different voltages?
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Which one of the following best describes what is defined as ‘High Voltage’ with reference to ships’ electrical systems?
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Which one of the following best describes who decides whether a person is a ‘Competent Person’ for the purposes of high voltage electrical work, according to this module?
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Which one of the following best describes who should hold the keys for the circuit breaker locks while maintenance is carried out on high voltage equipment if 4 people are to carry out the work?
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Which one of the following best describes who should sign to accept the high voltage Permit to Work from the Authorised Person if 3 people are to carry out the work?
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Seagull CBT0286 – Crane operations, Heavy lift

How is the risk associated with adverse weather conditions controlled during a heavy lifting operation? Pick the one option you think is best.
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Select the one option which best completes the following statement. ‘Briefing the team before a heavy lifting operation…
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Select the one option which best completes the following statement. ‘Cargo lashings are essential to…
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Select the one option which best completes the following statement. ‘Risk assessment for a heavy lifting operation…
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Select the one option which best completes the following statement. ‘To prepare the crane for a heavy lifting operation first…
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Select the one option which best completes the following statement. ‘When proposing to work a heavy lift on a vessel in extremely low air temperatures…
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Select the one option which best completes the following statement. ‘When taking a heavy lift a vessel has to be securely moored…
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Select the one option which best completes the following statement. ‘When taking a heavy lift on a vessel, company procedures…
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Select the one option which best describes how health and safety issues on a heavy lift vessel are addressed DURING a heavy lifting operation.
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Select the one option which best describes how the risk of crane malfunction is controlled on a heavy lift vessel.
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Select the one option which best describes the meaning of the ‘management of change’ principle.
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Select the one option which best describes the use of a ‘toolbox’ talk before or during an operation on a heavy lift vessel.
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Select the one option which best describes those personnel required to maintain a specialised heavy lift crane.
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Select the one option which best describes when a ‘stop the job’ call can be made on board a heavy lift vessel.
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Select the one option which best describes why a contingency plan is necessary on board a heavy lift vessel when working a heavy lift.
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Select the one option which best describes why wind effect is important to a heavy lift vessel when taking a heavy lift.
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Select the one option which best identifies items on a vessel requiring appraisal when planning for a heavy lift operation.
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Select the one option which best identifies why a heavy lifting operation on a vessel should be individually risk assessed.
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Select the one option which best identifies why having adequate reserve stability is important on a heavy lift cargo vessel.
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Select the one option which best identifies why other non essential work should be stopped when a heavy lift cargo is being worked.
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Select the one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘Any non tested loose gear on a heavy lift cargo vessel should…
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Select the one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘Heavy lift crane maintenance should…
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Select the one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘It is important to know the location of the centre of gravity of the load because…
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Select the one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘Loose gear on a heavy lift vessel is an expression given to…
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Select the one option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘Loose gear on a heavy lift vessel should be tested…
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Select the one option which correctly describes a particular hazard associated with a tandem crane operation.
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Select the one option which correctly describes how the risks to a heavy lift crane are controlled when it is operating offshore.
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Select the one option which correctly describes the contents of a briefing on a heavy lift crane vessel before taking a heavy lift.
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Select the one option which correctly describes the main tests a new built heavy lift crane will be put through before use.
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Select the one option which correctly identifies a typical proof load applied to a heavy lift crane when it is load tested.
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Select the one option which correctly identifies how the chain register requires lifting equipment to be marked.
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Select the one option which correctly identifies the devices on a heavy lift crane that are required by a classification society to be tested daily when the crane is in use.
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Select the one option which correctly identifies the devices on a heavy lift crane that are typically required to be tested every 12 months by a classification society.
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Select the one option which correctly identifies the function of a crane signaler.
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Select the one option which correctly identifies the markings seen on a crane, as required by a classification society.
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Select the one option which correctly identifies the use of a chain register on a heavy lift cargo vessel.
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Select the one option which correctly identifies which persons are qualified to drive a heavy lift crane on board a vessel.
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Select the one option which correctly identifies why all personnel involved in a heavy lift operation should be aware of the content of the lifting plan.
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Select the one option which correctly identifies why some space is needed around a heavy load when it is stowed on a vessel.
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Select the one option which correctly identifies why there is a limit on how short the legs in a multi leg lifting sling can be.
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Select the one option which is correct for the following statement. ‘The supervisor of a lifting operation should not appoint themselves as the crane signaler’.
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Select two of the given options to best identify why effective communications are important during a team activity on a vessel.
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Which one of the following options correctly explains why a vessel has a very small roll period when rolling to large angles?
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Which one of the following options is correct for this statement? ‘Unforeseen events are taken care of in a contingency plan’.
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Which one of the given options best completes the following statement? ‘If a heavy lift breaks its lashings in bad weather…
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Which one of the given options best completes the following statement? ‘Lashings applied to a heavy load should…
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Which one of the given options best completes the following statement? ‘The best scenario with lashings on a heavy lift is that…
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Which one of the given options best completes the following statement? ‘The worst scenario with lashings on a heavy lift is that…
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Which one of the given options correctly describes why slack tanks should be avoided on a vessel when taking a heavy lift?
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Which person ashore first signs off the heavy lift plan when it is completed? Pick the one option you think is best.
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Seagull CBT0227 – Personal survival, Rescue and abandoning ship

How can you prevent someone who has fallen overboard from being lost at sea? Select the ONE best answer.
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The other crew have abandoned ship in a lifeboat because of a fire, but you are trapped on the fo’csle. There is no ladder nearby. How can you get into the lifeboat? Select the ONE best answer.
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Which of the following can be used to reduce the risks to the lifeboat crew when recovering a lifeboat after a man overboard rescue? Select the ONE best answer.
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You have abandoned a burning ship in a lifeboat. Which piece of equipment is used to keep the lifeboat near to where the ship is? Select the ONE best answer.
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You have abandoned ship in a life-raft. How can you increase the range of your radar reflector? Select the ONE best answer.
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You have abandoned ship in a life-raft. Which of these would you do when a rescue helicopter wants to winch you up? Select the ONE best answer.
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You have abandoned ship in a lifeboat. What should you do now? Select the ONE best answer.
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You have abandoned ship in a lifeboat. Which of these increases your risk of hypothermia? Select the ONE best answer.
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Seagull CBT0226 – Personal survival, Survival craft

How can a freefall lifeboat be launched if the ship is stern-to a reef? Select the ONE best answer.
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How might a dedicated rescue boat be different to a lifeboat? Select the ONE best answer.
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Some ships are fitted with an M.E.S.’ as part of their equipment. What does “M.E.S.” stand for? Select the ONE correct answer.
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The lifeboat on a gas tanker has an air supply inside. How long would you expect the air supply to last? Select the ONE best answer.
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What does this symbol mean? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What does this symbol mean? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What does this symbol mean? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What equipment is available to deal with a lifeboat engine fire? Select the ONE best answer.
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Where should a Totally Enclosed lifeboat be boarded? Select the ONE best answer.
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Where should you be to launch a freefall lifeboat from? Select the ONE best answer.
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Where would you normally find a Partially Enclosed lifeboat? Select the ONE best answer.
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Which TWO of these statements about inflatable life-rafts are true?
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Which one of these lifeboat types would you expect to find on a crude oil tanker? Select the ONE best answer.
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Seagull CBT0225 – Personal survival, Familiarisation

A passenger is sailing with a baby. What should you do when they arrive for the pre-sailing abandon ship drill? Select the ONE best answer.
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How can you maximise the range of a SART after you have abandoned ship? Select the ONE correct answer.
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How long can a portable survival craft radio be expected to work for in an emergency situation? Select the ONE correct answer.
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On joining a new ship, how would you find out which Muster Station you have been given? Select the ONE best answer.
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Solid lifejackets cover more of your chest than your back. Why is this? Select the ONE best answer.
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What is the best way to send a distress message from a sinking ship? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What is the main purpose of a Thermal Protective Aid (T.P.A.)? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What is the standard IMO general alarm signal? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What is “hypothermia”? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What would you use an “air band” radio for? Select the ONE correct answer.
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Where can you get more information about a type of life-raft you have not seen before? Select the ONE correct answer.
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Which of these can be seen furthest away from you? Select the ONE correct answer.
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Why might you have to learn two sets of emergency duties? Select the ONE best answer.
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You are in the water on a foggy night. How can your lifejacket help you to be found? Select the ONE best answer.
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You are in the water wearing a SOLAS inflatable lifejacket. It is losing pressure. What can you do? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0124 – Greasing Mooring Winches and Windlasses

Why is it important to keep the winch greased?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0068 – BC Code

A bulk cargo may shift within the cargo hold and cause the vessel to list. Which one of the following circumstances is this most likely to happen under?
ANSWER:

A bulk cargo of iron ore is loaded with a high peak at the centre of the cargo space. What is the most likely result of this form of loading?
ANSWER:

A bulk carrier has badly maintained hatch cover seals which allow seawater to leak into the cargo space in bad weather. Which one of the following is considered to be the main danger of this situation when considering a non liquefying cargo?
ANSWER:

A cargo is about to be loaded and the moisture content is found to be in excess of the transportable moisture limit (TML). Which one of the following actions should the Master take?
ANSWER:

A cargo is loaded that has a liquefaction problem and moisture content above the transportable moisture limit. Which one of the following effects on the cargo is the most likely result of this situation?
ANSWER:

A cargo of coal appears to be self heating on voyage. Which one of the following actions should the ship’s Master take in such circumstances?
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A cargo of crushed coal, particle size 1mm and a flow moisture point of 20 is to be loaded. The coal had a moisture content of 17 measured 12 days previously but has lain uncovered on the quayside in heavy rain since. Which one of the following actions should the Master of the vessel take?
ANSWER:

A number of deaths have occurred in cargo spaces that have been used for cargoes such as grain and steel scrap (swarf). Which one of following is thought to have been absorbed by the cargo, from the cargo space atmosphere, so causing these deaths?
ANSWER:

A vessel is to load 100,000 tonnes of coal with a stowage factor (SF) of 1.50 m³/t. Which one of the following will be the required volumetric cargo space to load this cargo, measured in cubic metres, m³?
ANSWER:

A vessel is to load 100,000 tonnes of iron ore with a stowage factor (SF) of 0.50 m³/t. Which one of the given options is the required stowage volume for this cargo?
ANSWER:

A vessel is to load 20,000 tonnes of iron ore with a stowage factor (SF) of 0.30 m³/t. The vessel has four cargo holds each with a volume of 6,000 m³ and a maximum allowed loading of 7,000 tonnes in each hold. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the above?
ANSWER:

According to the BLU Code, which one of the following has the responsibility for the risk assessment and detailed planning of the cargo loading or unloading operation at a terminal?
ANSWER:

According to the Basel Convention, toxic wastes may be loaded only after which THREE of the following steps have been taken?
ANSWER:

An IMO safety circular in the supplement of the IMSBC Code outlines safety precautions related to in- transit fumigation and the application of pesticides to certain cargoes such as grains. Which of the following are true according to that circular? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Cargoes are placed in either Group A, Group B or Group C with respect to the hazard they present. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to these groups?
ANSWER:

In relation to the classes given in the IMSBC Code, is the following statement true or false? Two bulk cargoes, a Class 5.1 dangerous good and a Class 6.2, requiring a category 3 segregation, must have at least 3 metres separating them.
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In relation to the groups given in the IMSBC Code, is the following statement true or false? Group C contains a list of materials which are neither liable to liquefy nor to possess chemical hazards.
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In which one of the following would you normally find information about the maximum loading weight of each cargo hold?
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In which one of the following would you normally find the two common methods of determining the angle of repose?
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Is the following statement true or false? A bulk cargo with low angle of repose has a high likelihood of shifting.
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Loading of certain cargoes, including grain and iron ore fines, may require approval from the government authorities of the port State. Emergencies with certain cargoes also require the government authorities to be informed. Where, within the IMSBC Code, can contact addresses of the relevant authorities be found?
ANSWER:

Select from the following, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. “The highest segregation for incompatible cargoes carried in packaged form, along with bulk cargoes, is…
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Select from the options the phrase which most accurately completes the following statement. “The angle of repose of a cargo is…
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Select from the phrases given in the options the one that most accurately completes the following statement. “The danger associated with carbon monoxide gas is that it is…
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Select from the phrases given in the options the one which most accurately completes the following statement. “A bulk carrier with a large metacentric height (GM) will have a…
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Select the THREE phrases which can each correctly complete the following statement. “According to the IMSBC Code, high consequence solid bulk cargoes with high potential security implications are those that may…
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Select the phrase which most accurately completes the following statement. “The main reason for establishing the moisture content is to…
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Table 2 of an IMO safety circular in the IMSBC Code supplement exempts vessels dedicated to certain cargoes from Group B from having a fixed gas extinguishing system. Select the two correct statements about these cargoes from the following.
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Which condition of the vessel is illustrated in the displayed image?
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Which of the following are the reasons for the publication of the BLU Manual for terminals, when it is so similar to the BLU Code for ships? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Which of the following cargo groups are listed in an IMO safety circular in the IMSBC supplement that identifies them as having a low fire risk and gives vessels dedicated to their carriage exemption from having a fixed gas extinguishing system in their holds? (Select all applicable options)
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Which of the following is the main reason why high-density cargoes should not be stowed to an excessive height?
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Which one of the bulk cargo types given in the options is more likely to have a liquefaction risk?
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Which one of the bulk cargoes given in the options is most likely to be subject to liquefaction?
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Which one of the following answers is the correct definition for the term ‘flow moisture point’?
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Which one of the following answers is the correct definition for the term ‘stowage factor’?
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Which one of the following answers is the correct definition for the term ‘transportable moisture content’ (TML)?
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Which one of the following conditions is likely to occur when a bulk carrier is heavily loaded in the mid section and lightly loaded at the ends?
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Which one of the following does the acronym “MHB” stand for in relation to the IMSBC Code?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following groups of gases should the atmosphere of an enclosed space, for example a cargo hold, be checked for, before entry is permitted?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following hazards may result from the improper weight distribution of solid bulk cargoes?
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Which one of the following identifies how a bulk cargo should generally be loaded in order to reduce the likelihood of the cargo shifting when the ship is rolling heavily in bad weather?
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Which one of the following identifies the action that should be taken with bulk cargoes that may be subject to liquefying?
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Which one of the following identifies the main function of the segregation table in the IMSBC Code?
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Which one of the following identifies the main gases that are likely to be produced by a coal cargo?
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Which one of the following identifies the three categories of general hazards associated with shipment of solid bulk cargoes?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following identifies what is recommended should be monitored on a bulk carrier that is carrying a cargo of coal?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is considered to be the main danger to a bulk carrier in relation to seawater leakage into a cargo space?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the likely outcome of a cargo hold bilge sounding pipe being damaged, within the cargo hold, during loading?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the main hazard that may result due to a solid bulk cargo shifting during carriage?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the main hazard that may result from a chemical reaction during carriage of some types of solid bulk cargo?
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Which one of the following is the main reason that water should not be used to extinguish fire in the cargo hold while at sea?
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Which one of the following is the main reason why bulk cargo should be trimmed level, or nearly level?
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Which one of the following is the main reason why it is important to normally only ballast one or two tanks at a time?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the main reason why samples and tests of a stockpile of the cargo must be taken within 7 days prior to loading?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the minimum oxygen content that is required before entry into any enclosed space, such as a cargo hold, should be allowed?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the most likely result of moisture migration in a bulk cargo?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following most accurately describes when personnel may enter a cargo hold that contains timber and forest products?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following possibilities does a high level of carbon monoxide (above 30 ppm) in a coal cargo indicate that the cargo is doing?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following procedures should be followed when a bulk cargo of coal is being carried at sea?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following should a vessel carrying a coal cargo monitor very regularly?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to high density cargoes?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is the most accurate with regard to actions to be carried out before entry into an enclosed space, such as cargo space, is made?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is the most likely to be true, in relation to a cargo with a high angle of repose of 45°?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is the most likely to be true, in relation to a cargo with a low angle of repose of 32°?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements most accurately describes the term ‘moisture migration’?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following terms is the acronym “TML” used for in the IMSBC Code?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following will be the likely result of a bulk carrier being loaded with a high-density cargo such as iron ore?
ANSWER:

Which one of the individuals identified in the options is, by the definition given in the BLU Manual, effectively the Master of a ship while cargo is being transferred at a terminal?
ANSWER:

Which one of the locations given in the options is the best for taking gas samples from the cargo spaces?
ANSWER:

Which three of the following are the IMSBC Code requirements from shore and terminal operators, regarding cargoes with high potential security implications?
ANSWER:

Which two of the following apply to a vessel carrying a coal cargo when at sea?
ANSWER:

You are to load a full cargo of substance X for which there is no mention of angle of repose in the cargo information form provided by the Shipper. Which appendix of the IMSBC Code will you consult, in addition to appendix 1, to confirm that substance X is cohesive when dry and, may be loaded without the risk of dry-shift of the cargo?
ANSWER:

You have just received orders to pick up a full load of POTASH, a cargo that you are not familiar with, from a nearby terminal. In which part of the IMSBC Code will you find a description of critical characteristics and hazards and precautions of handling this cargo, before detailed information is made available to you by your company or the terminal?
ANSWER:

Your vessel is to load a cargo of iron ore fines during rainy weather. Your shipowners have asked that you witness the testing for moisture content and transportable moisture limit of the consignment prior to loading the cargo since the onboard test with a can will be insufficient. Where in the IMSBC Code will you find the correct procedure for the flow table test for moisture content?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0346 – Personal safety and environmental protection

According to SOLAS, what is the minimum level of oxygen required before entry into an enclosed space? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

According to the IMO, at least how many sets of Respiratory Protective Equipment (RPE), must be available when fumigation has been carried out? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Do the poisoning and suffocation risks of various cargoes only exist within the cargo spaces? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How are portable water jet machines able to project a jet of water to a height of 30 metres or more? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How are the risks of enclosed space entry on a bulk carrier controlled? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How is the safety of cleaning and preparation work in a hold controlled? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

How may Port State Authorities check that a ship’s ballast water exchange has been effective? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How often must enclosed space entry drills be carried out onboard? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How often must the Ship Safety Officer carry out a ship safety inspection? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Is it possible for a Safety Management System (SMS) to be modified once it has been implemented onboard? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Outside of MARPOL Annex V Special Areas, what is the general rule for discharging none HME cargo residues and wash water? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What PPE outfit would you expect to be used on deck when working a non-dusty cargo? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What PPE would you expect to be used when on deck when working a dusty cargo? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What actions should be taken if active fumigant material is seen in the cargo when the hatches are opened? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the definition of ‘wash water’ under MARPOL Annex V? Select the ONE correct answer.
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What is the first step in any risk assessment? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the main operational safety issue when using a mucking winch? Select the ONE best answer.
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What materials are sump pumps designed to handle safely? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What percentage of dust should a FFP1 standard dust mask filter out? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What system does the ISM Code require the ship owner or manager to implement onboard? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What will a respirator provide protection against? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When using a respirator, what is the recommended maximum working time in any one day? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where can information about the poisoning or suffocation risks of various bulk cargoes be found? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where can the regulations covering the discharge of hold cargo residues and wash water be found? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where can you find advice on the safe use of fumigants? Select the ONE best answer.
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Where can you find information about the PPE required for key onboard tasks? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Where should details of the ballast water exchange be recorded? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which personnel are permitted to operate high pressure water guns? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why is a positive pressure respirator better than a mask type? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why must goggles or a visor be worn when operating a light hand-held water jet? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0342 – Common bulk cargoes

According to the International Grain Code, in a modern bulk carrier design, do the ends of each hold have to be completely filled/trimmed? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Apart from rain, which ONE of these is the major cause of grain cargo wetness?
ANSWER:

Does a ‘partly-filled compartment’ require to be over-stowed when a modern bulk carrier loads grain? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

For how long should hold ventilation be shut down before gas monitoring measurements are taken? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How can the amount of methane in the space over a coal cargo be measured? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How can the master decide what the maximum permissible grain heeling moment is for their ship? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How do the USA, Canada and Australia differ from the International Grain Code requirements in respect of stability calculations? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How does the master know which fumigant has been used on a grain cargo? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How is the actual Grain Heeling Moment found for the whole ship? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How often should the hold bilges be sounded during a loaded voyage with an iron ore cargo? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

How should non-cohesive cargoes, which have an angle of repose equal to, or less than, 30º (as defined in the IMSBC Code), be treated? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

If infestation of a grain cargo is found at any inspection during the voyage or prior to arriving at the discharge berth what action should be taken? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

If self-heating has started which ONE action could cool the coal cargo?
ANSWER:

If self-heating is detected which TWO of these actions should be taken?
ANSWER:

If the angle of repose of most iron ore cargoes is about 35o, why they are required to be trimmed level? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

If there is any doubt about the accuracy of the cargo declaration what should the master do? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

In addition to wetness, which ONE of these can make grain cargo self-heating more likely?
ANSWER:

In the International Grain Code what does ‘filled compartment – trimmed’ mean? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

In the International Grain Code what does ‘filled compartment – untrimmed’ mean in the case of a modern bulk carrier? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

In the International Grain Code what does ‘specially suitable compartment’ mean? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

In which ONE of these can the contents checklist for the loading plan be found?
ANSWER:

There will be certain times during grain loading when a ship will not have adequate stability to put to sea. What is the most important action to take? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

To which IMSBC Code cargo Group(s) do hot and cold-moulded Direct Reduced Iron cargoes belong? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Using temperature measuring ports or pipes, at how many levels should temperature monitoring be done? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What TWO precautions should be taken to prepare for loading coal cargoes that are declared as giving off methane?
ANSWER:

What action should be taken if insects, insect larvae, rats or mice, are seen, either dead or alive, at the time of loading grain? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What are Volumetric Heeling Moments? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What are the TWO main issues when carrying grain cargoes?
ANSWER:

What cargo would you expect to be shipped in a VLBC? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What concentration of carbon monoxide does the IMSBC Code say indicates a coal cargo is self-heating?
ANSWER:

What does a methanometer measure? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What does a solid equilateral triangle mark on each side of a bulk carrier’s hull near the deck line amidships indicate? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What does an ‘explosimeter’ measure? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What does ‘LEL’ stand for? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What does ‘MHB’ stand for in relation to bulk carriers and their cargoes? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What extent of grain shifting is assumed when calculating Volumetric Heeling Moments? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is a typical stowage factor for wheat or corn? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is a ‘Document of Authorisation’? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is likely to happen if a grain cargo is loaded which is wet? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the Grain Heeling Moment? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the coal temperature above which the IMSBC Code says loading should not be allowed? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the main reason for greasing hatch cover wheels and steel-to-steel contact points before opening and closing of covers? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the maximum acceptable level of methane in the space above a coal cargo according to the IMSBC Code? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the maximum permissible angle of heel after grain shifting has been calculated? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the minimum permissible GM fluid which must be achieved before considering grain stability? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the typical angle of repose of a grain cargo? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the typical stowage factor of lump ore? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What precautions should be taken when loading grain to avoid rain water affecting the cargo? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What should the maximum variation in height be across the top of an iron ore cargo? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When should coal cargo temperatures be taken? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where can the Master find detailed procedures for gas monitoring during the voyage? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where can the Ship-Shore Safety Checklist for use by ships and grain loading terminals be found? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Where can the master find information on coal cargoes and their hazards? Select ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which IMSBC Code cargo group(s) does an iron ore cargo that may liquefy belong to? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these IMSBC Code cargo groups would “coal slurry” fall into?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these can give rise to an explosion hazard in a coal cargo?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these contains details of cargoes that should be treated like grain, even though they are not grain?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these contains guidance on iron ore fines or concentrates which may liquefy?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these contains the permissible shear force and bending moment data for the ship?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these describes why hold bilges should be regularly pumped during voyages loaded with Group C iron ore?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these gases typically causes an explosion risk with coal cargoes?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these is a hazard associated with cold-moulded Direct Reduced Iron (DRI)?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these is another name for ‘alternate hold loading’?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these is given off when coal self-heats?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these is given off when corrosive acids are formed in a coal cargo?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these is likely to cause structural corrosion in a hold containing coal? Select the ONE answer that is the most likely.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these is necessary if cold moulded Direct Reduced Iron is carried?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these is the percentage of methane in air that creates an explosion risk?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these is the solution to the problems caused by a very high maximum loading rate?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these should the master do if self-heating is detected with smoke or heat?
ANSWER:

Which TWO are reasons why hatch covers on holds that are not being worked should be closed?
ANSWER:

Which TWO methods of monitoring the temperature of a coal cargo during loading are recommended?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of these are grain cargoes?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of these are particular hazards of coal cargoes?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of these are signs of self-heating in a coal cargo?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of these help personnel reduce the risks from the dust made by iron ore cargoes?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of these increase the risk of suffocation in a hold containing coal?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of these iron ores are IMSBC Code Group C cargoes?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of these might indicate self-heating of a coal cargo?
ANSWER:

Which TWO things are needed for self-heating to occur in a coal cargo?
ANSWER:

Which intact stability requirements must a ship carrying grain comply with? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which of these best describes which ships are subject to the International Grain Code when carrying bulk grain? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which of these cargoes groups are known as the ‘major bulks’? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which of these is the biggest hazard associated with iron ore cargoes? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which of these precautions must be taken before entering a hold that contains iron ore? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Who should test the atmosphere of a fumigated space after ventilation at the discharge port in order to declare the space safe to enter? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why does most localised damage to ship structures take place during discharge? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why should hold access ways and adjacent compartments be sealed while carrying coal? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why should hold bilge pumping records be kept while carrying iron ore cargoes? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why should the condition of electrical systems in the holds and nearby access ways be checked before loading a coal cargo? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why should you never do through-ventilation into the body of a coal cargo? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT0197 – MLC 2006, Basic Introduction

According to the MLC 2006 what will be the minimum age for seafarers to undertake normal night working onboard ship?
ANSWER:

According to the MLC 2006, what is the minimum age for any person to work as a cook onboard a ship?
ANSWER:

According to the MLC 2006, what is the minimum age for any person to work on a ship?
ANSWER:

According to the MLC 2006, who has the responsibility to provide financial support to the family of a seafarer in the event of death or injury to a seafarer onboard ship?
ANSWER:

According to the requirements of the MLC 2006 what is the maximum time interval for payment of wages during a seafarer’s contract onboard ship?
ANSWER:

According to the requirements of the MLC 2006 what provision should be made for dealing with seafarers complaints?
ANSWER:

Before entry into force of the MLC 2006 at least 30 Member States must have ratified the convention. Which one of the given options is the minimum share of world gross tonnage that is also required before entry into force can happen?
ANSWER:

During an MLC 2006 inspection seafarers may be interviewed by either a flag State or port State control inspector. Which one of the given statements about these interviews is true?
ANSWER:

For how long is a Maritime Labour Certificate, issued for compliance with the MLC 2006, normally valid?
ANSWER:

How long after ratification by sufficient Member States with sufficient gross tonnage will entry into force of the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006, happen?
ANSWER:

If a shipowner fails to repatriate a seafarer, or pay the cost of the repatriation, following satisfactory completion of a contract, who, according to the MLC 2006, is responsible for making the arrangements and covering the cost for the repatriation?
ANSWER:

In case of repatriation in normal circumstances what cost should the seafarer be responsible for according to the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

In order for a Maritime Labour Certificate, issued for compliance with the MLC 2006, to remain valid it is necessary that an intermediate inspection is carried out on behalf of the Competent Authority. When should this inspection be carried out?
ANSWER:

In which part of the structure of the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006, are the basic rights of workers included?
ANSWER:

Seafarer recruitment and placement services operating under the jurisdiction of a ratifying Member State should be approved and licensed by that State. Which one of the statements given in the options is the most accurate in relation to these services?
ANSWER:

Select from the options given the required ratification criteria for entry into force of the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006
ANSWER:

Select the option which agrees with how the MLC 2006 defines a seafarer onboard a ship to which the Convention applies.
ANSWER:

Select the option which represents the number of Member States of the International Labour Organisation as of May 2009.
ANSWER:

The ILO is split into a number of geographical regions. How many of these regions are there?
ANSWER:

The MLC 2006 contains a number of Articles. Which one of the given options best describes the content of the Articles?
ANSWER:

The MLC 2006 contains a requirement that a copy of the Convention must be carried onboard all ships flying the flag of Member States. Which one of the options best describes who should have access to this document onboard the ship?
ANSWER:

The MLC 2006 requires that either hours of work or hours of rest are regulated and that a notice is clearly displayed showing the detail of this. When hours of work are regulated what should the maximum hours of work be in a 24 hour period?
ANSWER:

The MLC 2006 requires that either seafarers’ hours of work or hours of rest are regulated. When hours of rest are regulated what should the minimum number of hours of rest be in a 24 hour period?
ANSWER:

The MLC 2006 requires that either seafarers’ hours of work or hours of rest are regulated. When hours of rest are regulated what should the minimum number of hours of rest be in a seven day period?
ANSWER:

The MLC 2006 requires that either seafarers’ hours of work or hours of rest are regulated. When hours of work are regulated what should the maximum number of hours of work be in a seven day period?
ANSWER:

The Maritime Labour Convention, 2006, is seen as the fourth pillar of international maritime regulation in ensuring safety at sea and for seafarers. From the options given select the three that are considered as the other pillars.
ANSWER:

The onboard complaints procedures required under the MLC 2006 allows seafarers to make complaints relating to compliance with the convention. Which one of the options best identifies the level at which a seafarer can make their complaint to under these procedures?
ANSWER:

There are four types of vessel that are exempt from the requirements of the MLC 2006. From the options given select the one which is one of the four exempt types.
ANSWER:

What is seen as the main advantage to a shipowner that should result from the introduction of the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

What is the approximate number of existing ILO maritime labour standards (conventions and recommendations) that the MLC 2006 will replace?
ANSWER:

What is the main responsibility of a Master on a ship flying the flag of a Member State that has ratified the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

What is the maximum period of validity for an Interim Maritime Labour Certificate issued under the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

What is the minimum age specified for a person to work as a cook onboard ship according to the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

What is the minimum leave rate that seafarers should be entitled to under the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

What is the requirement under the MLC 2006 regarding the person issuing a seafarer’s medical certificate?
ANSWER:

When Port State Control Officers carry out ship inspections according to the requirements of the MLC 2006 they must do so with the regard to the ‘no more favourable treatment’ clause. Which one of the options identifies the ships that this clause is meant to prevent from having more favourable treatment?
ANSWER:

Which body has the final responsibility for implementation and enforcement of the MLC 2006 on ships flying the flag of a ratifying Member State?
ANSWER:

Which body is responsible, under the MLC 2006, for inspecting foreign flag vessels which visit countries of ratifying Member States?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options best describes the International Labour Organisation?
ANSWER:

Which of the given statements best describes the social security provision for seafarers that Member States should work towards according to the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options is true with regard to the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options do the letters ILO stand for in connection with the MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options of sizes of ship does the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006 apply to?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given statements is true according to the MLC 2006 regulation dealing with medical care of seafarers?
ANSWER:

Which part of the Maritime Labour Convention 2006 is considered to be non-mandatory?
ANSWER:

Who is responsible for issuing a Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance under the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

With respect to the MLC 2006 what does the abbreviation DMLC stand for?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0193 – MLC 2006 Shipowner’s Responsibilities

A Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance is in two main parts. Who is responsible for completing part 1 of the declaration?

ANSWER:

A Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance is in two main parts. Who is responsible for completing part 2 of the declaration?
ANSWER:

A Shipowner requires an Interim Maritime Labour Certificate for a vessel for which they are taking over responsibility. Which of the statements given in the options is the most accurate in such circumstances?
ANSWER:

A renewal inspection of a ship is to be carried out prior to the expiry of the vessels existing Maritime Labour Certificate. If the inspection is carried out 2 months before expiry of the original certificate when will the new certificate expire?
ANSWER:

According to Regulation 2.3 of the MLC 2006, what is the maximum number of hours that a seafarer can work in a 24 hour period under normal circumstances?
ANSWER:

An Interim Maritime Labour Certificate can only be issued under certain circumstances and if certain conditions are met. Which of the given options is one of the conditions of issue of an IMLC?
ANSWER:

As well as having checks as to the validity of seafarers’ qualifications what other methods are suggested in the module for checking that seafarers are suitably qualified and are likely to be able to carry out their duties satisfactorily?
ANSWER:

As well as vessels registered with a ratifying Member State which are constructed after the Convention enters into force, which one of the given options will also be required to conform to the accommodation requirements detailed in the regulations?
ANSWER:

Complete the following statement by selecting the most accurate of the given options. Shipowners can expect that each Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance issued to them by…
ANSWER:

Complete the following statement from the options given. In meeting the requirements of the MLC, 2006, relating to medical certification of seafarers, the Shipowner…
ANSWER:

Complete the following statement with regard to the requirements for onboard medical care under the MLC, 2006. To meet the requirements of the Convention regulation dealing with medical care…
ANSWER:

How is a non-conformance under MLC, 2006, defined in this module?
ANSWER:

How is a policy defined in terms of this module?
ANSWER:

How many main parts are there in a Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance?
ANSWER:

If, during an MLC, 2006, intermediate inspection, a serious deficiency is noted which may present a health or safety hazard to the crew, what is the likely action to be taken by a flag State inspector?
ANSWER:

If, during an MLC, 2006, renewal inspection, carried out two months before the expiry date of the certificate, a number of deficiencies and non-conformances are found but the Shipowner cannot agree a rectification action plan with the inspector, what are the likely consequences?
ANSWER:

In addition to a signed copy of their employment agreement each seafarer is also entitled to be provided with other documentation under the requirements of the MLC, 2006. Which one of the given options should a seafarer also expect to receive?
ANSWER:

In order to meet the MLC, 2006, requirements covering food and catering certain evidence of compliance must be provided to inspectors. Which of the given statements is the most accurate in relation to Shipowners requirements for the documented evidence that should be maintained onboard their ships?
ANSWER:

In order to meet the requirements for onboard health and safety and accident prevention the shipowner must have certain documentation and records available for the flag State inspections. Which of the statements given in the options is the most accurate?
ANSWER:

In relation to the MLC 2006, which inspections are the flag States normally responsible for?
ANSWER:

It is a requirement of MLC, 2006 that either hours of work or hours of rest must be regulated. Where hours of rest are regulated a minimum rest of 10 hours in any 24 hours must be allocated which may be split into a maximum of two periods no more than 14 hours apart. What is the minimum duration for at least one of the rest periods?
ANSWER:

It is intended that all port State control inspections under the Maritime Labour Convention 2006 will be consistent and fair. Which of the options given is the main action that has been taken to try and ensure that this is achieved?
ANSWER:

MLC, 2006 requires that each vessel has an onboard complaints procedure. Which of the given statements is accurate with regard to these requirements?
ANSWER:

Seafarers’ employment agreements are covered by Regulation 2.1 of MLC, 2006. Which of the given options is a requirement of this regulation?
ANSWER:

Shipowners often use placement and recruitment services to supply crews for their vessels. What requirement does the MLC, 2006 have in relation to such services which are based in a ratifying Member State?
ANSWER:

Ships’ accommodation requirements under MLC, 2006 are detailed in Regulation 3.1 of the Convention. Which of the statements given in the options is the most accurate in respect of application of these requirements?
ANSWER:

The ILO guidelines for flag State and port State inspections under MLC, 2006, detail the actions that inspectors may and must take in the event of deficiencies, non-conformances and non-compliance being found onboard. Where would a Shipowner find details of any additional penalties or fines that may be applied in such circumstances?
ANSWER:

The MLC 2006 requires that Shipowners ensure that certain arrangements are in place for the payment of seafarers’ wages. Which one of the given options is a mandatory requirement of the regulation dealing with payment of wages?
ANSWER:

The MLC, 2006 regulation dealing with the minimum age of seafarers also includes other requirements relating to young seafarers. Which one of the given options will the Shipowner need to have in place to meet these requirements?
ANSWER:

The MLC, 2006, requires that seafarers are paid regularly for the services. What is the recommended maximum interval for the payments to be made?
ANSWER:

The Maritime Labour Convention, 2006, details the requirement to have a formal procedure to deal with onboard complaints by seafarers. Which of the statements given in the options is a key element of this requirement?
ANSWER:

The appointed competent authority will normally complete part 1 of the Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance on behalf of a Member State. Which of the given options is the most accurate with regard to part 1 of the declarations issued by an individual Member State?
ANSWER:

The manning levels required onboard ship are covered by Regulation 2.7 of the MLC, 2006. Which one of the options identifies the manning level specified in this regulation?
ANSWER:

The ownership of an MLC, 2006 certificated vessel changes hands but the vessel is to remain under the same flag. Which of the given options is the most likely action?
ANSWER:

The reference periods used in the regulation relating to hours of work and hours of rest are 24 hours and 7 days. How is the period of 24 hours apparently being interpreted by the majority of flag States?
ANSWER:

The requirements for persons responsible for cooking and food preparation onboard ships are detailed in the Convention under the regulation dealing with food and catering. Which of the given statements best describes the requirement?
ANSWER:

Under which of the circumstances given in the options is a shipowner likely to find their vessel detained under MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

What are the age requirements for seafarers undertaking regular night work onboard ship according to Regulation 1.1 of the MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

What details would be expected to be entered into part 1 of a Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance?
ANSWER:

What is it recommended that flag State inspectors do when carrying out inspections under the MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

What is the likely consequence for a vessel which has an invalid Maritime labour Certificate that is boarded by a port State control officer in a foreign port?
ANSWER:

What s the maximum period of validity of a Maritime Labour Certificate issued under MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

What should a Shipowner expect the consequence of a single, minor deficiency being observed during a flag State inspection?
ANSWER:

What would a Shipowner expect the consequences of a serious deficiency being uncovered during an MLC, 2006, inspection where the deficiency was not considered to present a health or safety risk?
ANSWER:

When considering the role of the port State control authorities in relation to the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006, which one of the statements given in the options is true?
ANSWER:

When determining the level of manning onboard ship the Shipowner must obviously refer to the minimum levels shown on the vessels safe manning certificate or document. What other factor does the MLC, 2006, require be taken into account in relation to manning levels?
ANSWER:

When did the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006 enter into force?
ANSWER:

When drawing up the policies addressing the requirements of the MLC, 2006, regulation dealing with medical care which of the given options should be included by the Shipowner.
ANSWER:

When making an application for a Maritime Labour Certificate to be issued to one of their existing vessels at which point should a Shipowner arrange for an initial inspection by flag State representatives to be carried out?
ANSWER:

When preparing for initial compliance with MLC, 2006, what would normally be the Shipowners first step?
ANSWER:

Where existing policies and procedures exist primarily for other purposes but which also meet the requirements of part of the MLC, 2006 what action is required by the Shipowner with respect to their responsibilities under the Convention?
ANSWER:

Where would a Shipowner find details of any ship specific requirements that a competent authority may have under the MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

Where would a record of all MLC, 2006, inspections be found?
ANSWER:

Where would details of exemptions granted by a competent authority, under MLC, 2006, be recorded?
ANSWER:

Which body would normally carry out a ship inspection for initial compliance and MLC 2006 certification purposes?
ANSWER:

Which date is considered as the construction date of a new vessel according to MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

Which element of the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006, is considered as guidance rather than being mandatory?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements is true in relation to a Declaration of Maritime labour Compliance issued under the MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements is true when considering MLC, 2006, compliance?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options best describes one of the main aims of the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the gross tonnage limit for which certification is a mandatory requirement under MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options would be a reasonable example of non-compliance in relation to the requirements of MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options would be considered a deficiency under MLC, 2006, as defined in this module?
ANSWER:

Which of the given statements is the most accurate in relation to an Interim Maritime Labour Certificate, IMLC, issued as part of the MLC, 2006 certification requirements?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options best describes the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options is the most accurate with respect to recreational facilities specified in the MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options relating to regulation 1.4, which deals with seafarer recruitment services, is true?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options identifies the main ratification criteria for entry into force of the MLC, 2006?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options is often used to describe the MLC, 2006 in terms of the maritime regulatory framework?
ANSWER:

Who has the responsibility for drawing up suitable policies and procedures to ensure that the requirements of the national laws of the flag State and therefore the requirements of the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006, are being met?
ANSWER:

With reference to the requirements for recreational facilities onboard ship under the MLC, 2006, which of the following statements is the most accurate?
ANSWER:

With regard to qualifications and training covered by Regulation 1.3 of the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006, which of the options is accurate.
ANSWER:

With regard to the minimum age requirements for seafarers onboard ship identified in the MLC, 2006, what responsibility does a private manning agency have for the age of the seafarers it places onboard ships?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0260 – Behaviour based safety

QUESTION EMPTY: 1
ANSWER:

QUESTION EMPTY: 2
ANSWER:

QUESTION EMPTY: 3
ANSWER:

QUESTION EMPTY: 4
ANSWER:

QUESTION EMPTY: 5
ANSWER:

QUESTION EMPTY: 6
ANSWER:

QUESTION EMPTY: 7
ANSWER:

QUESTION EMPTY: 8
ANSWER:

QUESTION EMPTY: 9
ANSWER:

QUESTION EMPTY: 10
ANSWER:

Accidents rates can best be reduced by:
ANSWER:

As crewmember on board you are expected to react to poor safety behaviour from:
ANSWER:

Consider a situation where you are working in a team. Who is responsible for the situational awareness of the team?
ANSWER:

Culture can be illustrated as an onion with three layers. Which of the three layers mainly comtrols our behaviour?
ANSWER:

SELECT THREE CORRECT ANSWERS:
ANSWER:

The concept of culture is often illustrated as an onion consisting of three layers. What does the innermost layer consist of?
ANSWER:

The process of observing safety conditions and behaviour (SCBO) is split into a number of sequential steps. Which of the given options fully identifies these steps?
ANSWER:

The risk management process can be divided into three levels; organisational level, risk management level, individual level. Which one of the given options best describes the level or levels typically overlooked and the mindset that should be adopted?
ANSWER:

To ensure safe work, in addition to a review of procedures and guidelines, and on board risk assessment, the risk management process should include:
ANSWER:

What characterises good safety communication?
ANSWER:

What other barriers could there be in the previous example with the ladder?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options best describes the main difference between situational awareness and risk assessment?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the first of the 7 principles of corrective feedback necessary to reach the desired result?
ANSWER:

Which of the situations below should be taken into account as part of situational awareness:
ANSWER:

Which one of the actions in the options given is most likely to reveal why the feedback advice given to an employee was not followed by the employee?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements best describes why it is important to observe and modify safety behaviour?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the characteristics of an intervention culture?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the mindset that must be in place on the highest level of a safety maturity ladder?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the process that the crew must be able to manage as part of developing a good safety culture?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the value of a formal and structured safety condition and behaviour observation?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes who has responsibility for the safety onboard?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes why personal responsibility cannot be eliminated by procedures, equipment and generic risk assessments?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best explains why safety communication is important?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options correctly completes the following statement? ‘Situational awareness is…
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options describes the arrangement for feedback that is most likely to drive performance?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options has been identified in the module as one of the key elements of safety communication?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options identifies a factor that should be observed when observing safety behaviour?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options identifies the five good safety behaviour patterns to strive for in creating a strong safety culture?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options is an example of the simple ethics described in this module that should be followed when doing an observation?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options is the main reason why it is always important to follow up on safety behaviour modification feedback?
ANSWER:

Which one of the options below best describes what should be observed when it comes to safety condition and behaviour?
ANSWER:

Which one of the options given below best describes why it is important to track barriers to safe behaviour?
ANSWER:

Which one of the statements given in the options best describes what you need to do in preparation for giving corrective feedback?
ANSWER:

Why is it important to give follow-up feedback?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0246 – Piracy and armed robbery II

According to this module, which option most accurately completes the following statement? ‘Risk assessment is…’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘BMP5 is supported by several interested organisations to counter piracy in the Gulf of Aden, Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea’.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘In an area with a high risk of piracy attack the AIS should always be switched off‘
ANSWER:

Select the option that BEST describes the Maritime Security Transit Corridor established by MSCHOA?
ANSWER:

Select the option that correctly completes the following statement. ‘The main purpose of the publication BMP5 is to assist…’
ANSWER:

Select the option that correctly completes the following statement. ‘The primary aim of the International Maritime Bureau Piracy Reporting Centre is…’
ANSWER:

Which TWO options are the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘A vessel at anchor off a port is fairly safe from local robbers’.
ANSWER:

Which of the options is correct in relation to the following statement? ‘Under BMP5 the vessel is solely responsible for preparing the vessel to counter piracy attack’. Answers:
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is the most important when describing why water spray from a vessel is a good deterrent against attempted boarding from a pirate skiff?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes when anti-piracy operational practices should be implemented?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes NATO’s simple attitude to piracy?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes a precaution that can be taken to protect a vessel’s crew from personal injury during a pirate attack?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes how razor wire should be deployed on board a vessel to stop unwanted boarders?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes how the Ship Security Alert System operates?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes operation ‘ATLANTA’?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes passage planning in an area with high piracy risk?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes the action to take when at anchor off a port where it is known that robberies have taken place on vessels?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes the meaning of the abbreviation MSCHOA?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes the messages to send using the vessel’s GMDSS equipment if the vessel is under pirate attack?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes the role of the shipping company under the vessel’s Safety Management System?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes the worst overall risk associated with piracy and armed robbery?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes what should happen to external doors and windows before entering an area with high piracy risk?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes why it is important to stop pirates accessing the vessel’s bridge?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes why it is necessary to send information reports to the international centres set up to combat piracy?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST describes why there should be distinctive signals on board a vessel attacked by pirates?
ANSWER:

Which option CORRECTLY completes the following statement? ‘A pirate safe area is an area…’
ANSWER:

Which option CORRECTLY completes the following statement? ‘Blast resistant film on the bridge windows will…’
ANSWER:

Which option CORRECTLY completes the following statement? ‘If pyrotechnics are used to scare pirates…’
ANSWER:

Which option CORRECTLY completes the following statement? ‘In an area known to have a high risk of pirate attacks, a vessel’s master should…’
ANSWER:

Which option CORRECTLY completes the following statement? ‘Publication BMP5 requires that vessels entering the Horn of Africa voluntary reporting area initially report to…’
ANSWER:

Which option CORRECTLY completes the following statement? ‘The primary aim of the organisation ‘Regional Cooperation Agreement on Combating Piracy and Armed Robbery against Ships (ReCAAP) is…’
ANSWER:

Which option CORRECTLY completes the following statement? ‘Under the vessel Safety Management System, a shipping company is responsible for ensuring that…’
ANSWER:

Which option CORRECTLY completes the following statement? ‘When an electric fence is deployed on a vessel to stop unwanted boarders, there should be…’
ANSWER:

Which option CORRECTLY completes the following statement? ‘When navigating in an area with high piracy risk, lookouts…’
ANSWER:

Which option CORRECTLY describes what NOT to do when manoeuvring a vessel under pirate attack?
ANSWER:

Which option CORRECTLY identifies a simple defensive approach to avoid a pirate attack?
ANSWER:

Which option best describes the most common method used by pirates to board a vessel that is underway?
ANSWER:

Which option best identifies where the world’s hot spots are for armed robbery as identified by IMO?
ANSWER:

Which option can be considered as a necessary action to be taken by the Company Security Officer when a vessel is to enter an area with a high risk of piracy attack?
ANSWER:

Which option can be considered correct as to the attitude of the United States government to US vessel defence in a high piracy risk area?
ANSWER:

Which option can be considered correct as to the presence of armed guards on board a merchant vessel?
ANSWER:

Which option can be considered most correct as to the attitude to armed guards on board non-US merchant vessels?
ANSWER:

Which option can be considered the correct action to be taken by the vessel master in relation to the crew before entering an area with a high risk of pirate attack?
ANSWER:

Which option can be considered the correct answer to the geographical areas covered by publication BMP5?
ANSWER:

Which option can be considered the most accurate reason as to why shore security support is necessary for a vessel?
ANSWER:

Which option correctly completes the following statement? ‘In some piracy high risk areas…’
ANSWER:

Which option correctly completes the following statement? ‘One of the best defensive strategies to counter pirate attack is…’
ANSWER:

Which option correctly completes the following statement? ‘Piracy consists of an act against a ship, aircraft, persons or property in a place…’
ANSWER:

Which option describes the simplest method that a vessel’s crew can use to prevent pirates from hijacking their vessel in order to demand a ransom?
ANSWER:

Which option describes the two methods of risk assessment that can be used to help combat pirate attacks?
ANSWER:

Which option is the best defence against pirate attack in an area with high piracy risk?
ANSWER:

Which option is the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘Foam is a useful anti boarding deterrent’
ANSWER:

Which option is the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘IMO are only interested in pirate attacks in the Gulf of Aden/Indian Ocean areas’.
ANSWER:

Which option is the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘Vessels are safe from being boarded and robbed when using major shipping routes.’
ANSWER:

Which option is the primary point of contact for a vessel in Asia wanting communications on piracy?
ANSWER:

Which option is the primary point of contact for a vessel in the Gulf of Aden wanting communications on piracy?
ANSWER:

Which option most accurately completes the following statement? ‘A pirate citadel is…’
ANSWER:

Which option most accurately completes the following statement? ‘Armed robbery is…’
ANSWER:

Which option most accurately completes the following statement? ‘As a vessel transits an area with high risk of pirate attack, a Company Security Officer should…’
ANSWER:

Which option most accurately completes the following statement? ‘Hijacking is the act of…’
ANSWER:

Which option most accurately completes the following statement? ‘Physical defences should be…’
ANSWER:

Which option most accurately completes the following statement? ‘Pirates attempting to board a vessel will…’
ANSWER:

Which option most accurately completes the following statement? ‘The main reason why centres have been set up by a number of international organisations is to…’
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0035 – Inspections

A Safety Management System includes:
ANSWER:

A safe route from the gangway should be cordoned off:
ANSWER:

A standard pre-arrival procedure should include:
ANSWER:

A tankscope can measure hydrocarbons in an inert atmosphere:
ANSWER:

A vetting is:
ANSWER:

All officers should know:
ANSWER:

An Oxygen & Acetylene cutting torch must be fitted with:
ANSWER:

An inspector may determine non-compliance with garbage requirements if:
ANSWER:

Drills aboard ship must:
ANSWER:

During a boat drill, the crew should:
ANSWER:

During a fire drill, the crew must ensure that:
ANSWER:

During a fire drill, the crew must: (Check all the correct answers)
ANSWER:

During an emergency drill, the Chief Mate must be able to:
ANSWER:

Emergency systems to be tested at regular intervals includes:
ANSWER:

Europe and Asia joined in identifying substandard ships through:
ANSWER:

Evidence of a higher than normal fire risk includes: (Check all the correct answers)
ANSWER:

First impressions are the most important element in passing an exam:
ANSWER:

If a serious material defect is known, the Master should:
ANSWER:

In general, substandard conditions are indicated by:
ANSWER:

In the workshop, a waste bin is considered unsafe if:
ANSWER:

MSDS Sheets must not be available at chemical store areas:
ANSWER:

Mobile phones:
ANSWER:

Name tags and badges of rank create a good impression
ANSWER:

On tankers, mooring winch brake tests must be conducted every…
ANSWER:

One of the most common deficiencies in vetting inspections is:
ANSWER:

One way to demonstrate knowledge of the dangers posed by cargo is:
ANSWER:

Open paint cans stored in spaces other than the paint locker indicates:
ANSWER:

Passage planning on tankers must include:
ANSWER:

Prior to a boat drill, the engine should:
ANSWER:

Several years ago, the USCG introduced risk management methods that include:
ANSWER:

Standard Operating Procedures are a major component of:
ANSWER:

Standing Orders need not be signed by navigating officers:
ANSWER:

Statutory Regulations include:
ANSWER:

Tanker crews face additional examination from:
ANSWER:

The OCIMF stands for:
ANSWER:

The SOLAS Training Manual must:
ANSWER:

The air bottle on Self Contained Breathing Apparatus in an emergency locker should be at least 90% full:
ANSWER:

The following conditions will result in an impression of substandard operation: (Check all the correct answers)
ANSWER:

The inspector should not:
ANSWER:

The inspector will check logbook entries to:
ANSWER:

The inspector will check to see if key crewmembers can:
ANSWER:

The poor condition of fire mains and hydrants or the absence of hoses or extinguishers would point to:
ANSWER:

The requirement to have pollution equipment available on deck is applicable:
ANSWER:

Too many general deficiencies would warrant:
ANSWER:

Visitors should be able to board unchallenged:
ANSWER:

Watch schedules detailing the work hours of watch keeping personnel:
ANSWER:

When an inspector initiates fire drill with a crewman, the crewman should shout:
ANSWER:

Whenever a small deficiency is observed, the crew should correct it on the spot:
ANSWER:

Work on steam systems does not require a permit to work:
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0041 – Generator

During the parallel operation of generators, the operator adjusts the diesel generator no.1’s potmeter in the main switchboard to a higher resistance. What will happen?
ANSWER:

How could you monitor the correct instant for synchronising without the aid of a synchroscope or synchronising lamps?
ANSWER:

How many % of nominal voltage is required before main circuit breaker can be connected to main bus bar?
ANSWER:

How many degrees are there between the phases in a 3-phase generator?
ANSWER:

If we have a generator with 4 poles, how many rpm does it need to give 60Hz?
ANSWER:

In a winding which rotates in a magnetic field the induced voltage is:
ANSWER:

In this module we will use a diesel engine with 1200 RPM, 60 Hz as the primary mover for the alternator. How many pole pairs are present in the alternator?
ANSWER:

Normally the power factor on the generator is…?
ANSWER:

The 700 kW generator circuit breaker has an over-current trip setting of 125%. What will the actual minimum tripping current level be when the power factor is 0.85?
ANSWER:

The diesel generator no. 1 has recently been through a major overhaul. During the running-in period, we do not want the engine to take full load. What do you do?
ANSWER:

The generators are run in manual and when you discover that the DG no.1 takes a larger part of the active load than DG no. 2, what could you do to share the load equally between the generators?
ANSWER:

The kW and kVAr instruments on the main switchboard reads respectively 630 kW and 400 kVAr. What is the actual power factor?
ANSWER:

The nominal frequency is 60 Hz at 1200 rpm and speed setpoint (idle speed) is set to 1200 rpm. What is the speed and frequency at 80% load when the speed droop is set to 4%?
ANSWER:

What could be the probable cause if the reactive load sharing is balanced at low loads (up to 50%), but imbalanced at higher loads?
ANSWER:

What does it mean if the synchronising lamp rotation is counter-clockwise?
ANSWER:

What is the minimum requirement of isolation resistance for a 440V system?
ANSWER:

What is the probable cause if the generator loads are balanced at low loads but imbalanced at higher loads?
ANSWER:

What is the probable cause if the generator trips at reverse power during manual synchronising and connection of the generator?
ANSWER:

What will happen if Load dependent start/stop of generator sets is in auto mode?
ANSWER:

Where will you find the instruments for synchronising the generator?
ANSWER:

Which control mode is recommended during manoeuvring?
ANSWER:

Which of the following loads has the most negative effect (weaken) on the main field, and in doing so lowers the induced voltage in the generator?
ANSWER:

Which statement is true?
ANSWER:

Which statement is true?
ANSWER:

Which statement is true?
ANSWER:

Which statement is true?
ANSWER:

Why do we press the connect button when the synchroscope shows “5 to 12”?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0078 – Pumps and Pumping Operations

A pump is to be used to pump fresh water at a temperature where the vapour pressure of the water is equivalent to the pressure caused by 0.2 m head of fresh water, and atmospheric pressure is equivalent to 10.6 m head of fresh water. The maximum suction lift is 6.0 m, and the pipeline losses on the suction side are equivalent to a head of 3.0 m. What will the pump NPSH available be?
ANSWER:

Cavitation of the fluid in a centrifugal pump is caused by?
ANSWER:

If NPSHA is too small, how can it be increased? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

If a pump had available NPSH of 0.5m would a NPSH requirement of 0.48 be suitable for this purpose?
ANSWER:

If a pump has a NPSH requirement of 0.5m, would an available NPSH of 0.45m be suitable?
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false: ‘No types of positive displacement pump can change their delivery rate unless the speed of the drive motor is changed’.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false: ‘When operating pumps in parallel, if we use three pumps we will get three times the flow’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false: in centrifugal pump series operation the flow through all of the pumps is equal.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘In centrifugal pump series operation, the flow through all of the pumps is equal’.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘When operating pumps in parallel, if we double the number pumps the flow is also doubled’.
ANSWER:

Is this pump a single acting pump or a double acting pump?
ANSWER:

Is this statement true or false? ‘Positive displacement pumps can only vary their delivery rate by changing the speed of the drive motor’.
ANSWER:

On which side of point A will cavitation occur?
ANSWER:

Under what system conditions would operating pumps in parallel achieve very little benefit? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the advantage of starting a centrifugal pump with the delivery valve closed? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the main advantage of a double entry centrifugal pump? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the main advantage of starting a centrifugal pump with the delivery valve closed? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the main cause of cavitation of the fluid in a centrifugal pump? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the main reason for operating pumps in parallel? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What is the main reason for operating pumps in series? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What operating principle do positive displacement pumps rely on? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

What will happen if the NPSHA is less than the NPSHR? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following does NOT affect the efficiency of a pump?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following statements is correct?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following statements is true?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these statements best describes the energy transformation within a centrifugal pump?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following does not directly affect the efficiency of a pump? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements best describes the energy transformation within a centrifugal pump? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which one of these options is NOT a cause of excessive vibration in centrifugal pumps? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why are positive displacement pumps ideal for fuel transfer duties? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why are positive displacement pumps well suited to fuel transfer duties? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why do centrifugal pumps need priming? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Why do positive displacement pumps require a relief valve? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why is the axial flow pump ideal for trimming and heeling duties? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Why should positive displacement pumps not have their delivery restricted? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0186 – Vessel General Permit – VGP

Apart from the EPA who else is empowered to inspect ships to ensure that the Vessel General Permit (VGP) is complied with?
ANSWER:

During a U.S. Coast Guard inspection last month they examined and tested the ship’s oily water separator. Does it need to be tested again for the annual inspection due now?
ANSWER:

How many violations of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) is a ship guilty of if paint chips have been allowed to wash off the deck into permit waters for 8 consecutive days?
ANSWER:

How often is a report of non-compliances required to be submitted to the EPA on behalf of each ship using the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Part of the annual inspection required by the Vessel General Permit (VGP) is a check on underwater oil seals. If this cannot be done during the year what should be done?
ANSWER:

The VGP requires seawater flushing of some ballast tanks on board ships engaged on a Pacific Nearshore Voyage within a ’coastal exchange zone’. Which one of the following best describes a ’coastal exchange zone’?
ANSWER:

Marine Fuel Properties II
ANSWER:

The Vessel General Permit (VGP) controls oil/sea interfaces like CPP and stern tube seals. Which of the following is also considered an oil/sea interface by the VGP?
ANSWER:

The class surveyor does not want to look at the chain locker during the current dry dock as it is not due for survey. What should be done about this to satisfy the VGP?
ANSWER:

The ship’s Safety Equipment survey is to be carried out in a US port. Will it be acceptable to demonstrate the fire pumps to the surveyor while in port?
ANSWER:

Apart from the EPA who else is empowered to inspect ships to ensure that the Vessel General Permit (VGP) is complied with?
ANSWER:

To which of the following types of ships does the Vessel General Permit (VGP) apply special requirements?
ANSWER:

When must a Notice of Intent be submitted for a ship planning to enter waters controlled by the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes a specific requirement of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) for oily bilge water discharges from a ship of more than 400 gross tons?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes a type of general discharge regulated by the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes a way of meeting the specific requirements of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) for antifouling coatings?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes a way of meeting the specific requirements of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) for deck runoff on a general cargo ship?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes how the ship can prove a Notice of Intent (NOI) under the Vessel General Permit (VGP) scheme has been submitted at the correct time?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes one of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) requirements for grey water?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes one of the specific requirements of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) for discharges from chain lockers?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes one of the specific requirements of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) for discharges of ballast?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes one of the specific requirements of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) for lifeboat engine wet exhausts?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the Vessel General Permit (VGP) requirements for condensate discharges from refrigeration and air conditioning plant?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the Vessel General Permit (VGP) requirements for handling fouling organisms within ship’s seawater piping?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the action required by the ship to ensure compliance with the Vessel General Permit (VGP) when it returns to the US from voyages outside permit waters?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the action required by the ship’s watch ratings to keep the ship compliant with the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the action to be taken if a violation of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) discharge conditions is discovered by a crew member?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the method of submitting a Notice of Intent (NOI) under the Vessel General Permit (VGP) scheme?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the nature of the annual inspections required by the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a Notice of Intent (NOI) under the Vessel General Permit (VGP) scheme?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the requirements of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) for cleaning of hull underwater areas?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the requirements of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) for sewage discharge?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the specific requirements of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) for non-oily machinery waste water discharges into permit waters?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes why the Vessel General Permit (VGP) regulates seawater cooling discharges?
ANSWER:

Which of the following discharge sources does the Vessel General Permit (VGP) regulate?
ANSWER:

Which of the following happens as a result of a 2nd prosecution for violation of the VGP?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is a legal option for ships that cannot comply with the discharge standards in the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is a valid reason for submitting a Notice of Termination under the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is required as part of the annual inspections required by the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the classification of a violation that can be fixed using “simple adjustments to your control measures, using existing personnel and resources” according to the VGP?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the maximum time normally allowed for corrective action if a violation of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) is found to have resulted in a need for replacement parts?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the most accurate for ships subject to the Vessel General Permit (VGP) that are over 400 gross tons and leave permit waters at least once per week?
ANSWER:

Which of the following options is a valid reason for a master deciding not to conduct mid ocean ballast water exchange or flushing?
ANSWER:

Which of the following was the main reason for the Vessel General Permit (VGP) being introduced in 2008?
ANSWER:

Which of the following would be considered as a violation of the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which of these documents is the US Coast Guard likely to ask to see during Port State Control inspections according to their VGP Job Aid?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the Vessel General Permit (VGP) requirements for discharge of swimming pool water from a cruise ship?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the areas that the Vessel General Permit (VGP) applies to?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the ballast records required by the Vessel General Permit (VGP) to be kept?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the discharges controlled by the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the form of record keeping required by the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the requirements of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) for liquids collected in elevator shaft pits?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the ships that are allowed to use the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the ships that must submit a Notice of Intent (NOI) in order to be allowed to use the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the specific requirements of the Vessel General Permit (VGP) for fire main discharges while in conservation areas?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the weekly inspections required by the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is a recommended way to minimise environmental harm from seawater cooling discharges according to the VGP?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is a specific requirement for oil tankers in the VGP?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is required as part of the dry dock inspections required by the Vessel General Permit (VGP)?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following most accurately describes the way to handle gas turbine wash water while in VGP permit waters?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options would best contribute to meeting VGP discharge requirements for decks?
ANSWER:

Which organisation is responsible for the Vessel General Permit?
ANSWER:

While a ship is regulated by the Vessel General Permit (VGP) how often would you expect its crew to monitor the ballast water treatment plant for correct operation?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0230 – High Voltage, Fundamentals

A 440 Volt AC source supplies 2 loads in parallel. The left load has an impedance of 44 Ohms and the right of 11 Ohms. Which of the following is the current taken from the AC supply?
ANSWER:

A man accidently receives an electric shock resulting in a current of 2 mA flowing through his hands and chest. Which of the following best describes the likely effect on him?
ANSWER:

An AC circuit delivers an active power of 30 kW when supplied at 400 Volts and 125 Amps. Which of the following is the reactive power?
ANSWER:

An AC electrical circuit operates at 110 Volts. Which one of the following is the circuit’s voltage rating according to this module?
ANSWER:

An overcurrent relay is usually used to open a circuit breaker. Which one of the following is another function it may be used for?
ANSWER:

How do electrical engineers refer to a flow of electricity around a circuit?
ANSWER:

In analysing AC electrical circuits it is common practice to use impedances. Which one of the following best describes what an ‘impedance’ is?
ANSWER:

PVC insulated cable is very popular ashore. Which one of the following best describes the reason why it is less frequently used on ships?
ANSWER:

Sometimes conductors are separated to prevent short circuits, using the insulating effect of the air to contain the electricity. Which 2 of the following are reasons why the gap between conductors may be larger than the minimum necessary for the rated voltage?
ANSWER:

Sometimes it is possible to see electrical conductors, such as busbars, which have no insulation covering parts of them. Which one of the following best describes why these uninsulated live parts do not normally cause a short circuit?
ANSWER:

The basic strategy to stay alive while working with high voltage systems may be summarised as D.I.E. What does D.I.E. stand for?
ANSWER:

The battery in the circuit shown has an output of 1.5 Volts. The resistors are 32.75 Ohms each. What voltage is dropped across the right hand resistor?
ANSWER:

The battery in the circuit shown has an output of 12 Volts. If the resistance of the resistor is 3 Ohms what current should be flowing in the circuit?
ANSWER:

The battery in the circuit shown has an output of 12 Volts. If the resistance of the upper resistor is 3 Ohms what current should be flowing in the circuit?
ANSWER:

The battery in the circuit shown has an output of 12 Volts. The resistors are 3 Ohms each. What current should be flowing through the battery connections?
ANSWER:

The battery in the circuit shown has an output of 24 Volts. If the resistance of the upper resistor is 3 Ohms and the lower resistor is 5 Ohms what current should be flowing in the circuit?
ANSWER:

The battery in the circuit shown has an output of 6 Volts. If the resistance of the resistor is 0.5 Ohms what current should be flowing?
ANSWER:

The battery in the circuit shown has an output of 6 Volts. If the resistance of the upper resistor is 3 Ohms and the current flowing in the circuit is 1 Amp then what voltage is dropped across the upper resistor according to Kirchhoff’s Law?
ANSWER:

The battery in the circuit shown has an output of 6 Volts. The resistance of the upper resistor is 3 Ohms and the lower resistor is 9 Ohms. What voltage is dropped across the upper resistor according to Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law?
ANSWER:

The battery in the circuit shown has an output of 6 Volts. The voltage dropped across the upper resistor is 2 Volts. What voltage is dropped across the lower resistor according to Kirchhoff’s Law?
ANSWER:

Thermosetting insulation has been used on the cases of 2 circuit breakers, one rated for low voltage and the other for high voltage. Which of the following options best describes the difference that can be seen in the insulation?
ANSWER:

Two electrical conductors are circular in cross section and are otherwise the same except that conductor 1 has twice the diameter of conductor 2. If the resistance of conductor 1 is 2 Ohms what is the resistance of conductor 2?
ANSWER:

Two electrical conductors are the same except that conductor 1 is four times as long as conductor 2. If the resistance of conductor 1 is 2 Ohms what is the resistance of conductor 2?
ANSWER:

Two identical coils are connected in separate electrical circuits. One coil is supplied by a 12 Volt DC source and the other by a 12 Volt AC source. Which one of the following describes which circuit will have the higher current flowing and why?
ANSWER:

When calculating the resistance of an electrical conductor which one of the following is the symbol used to denote the resistivity of the conductor material?
ANSWER:

Which of the following allows the heat being produced in a conductor carrying a current to be calculated?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes how a capacitor works?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes how the apparent power of an AC electrical circuit with a single coil as a load can be calculated?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes one of the ways that might cause an electrical conductor to suffer voltage overload?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes one reason why people receiving electric shocks from high voltage (HV) systems are more likely to die than those receiving shocks from low voltage (LV) systems?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the effect of over voltage when applied to an electrical conductor?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the meaning of the symbol Ω when found in an electrical calculation?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the reason why designers of electrical systems sometimes specify cables with a greater current carrying capacity than the current predicted to flow in service?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes what we mean by ‘power factor’ in an AC electrical system?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes why traditionally ships’ electrical systems have operated with an insulated neutral?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the level at which electricity becomes high voltage, according to the International Electro-technical Commission standard for ships?
ANSWER:

Which of the following options best explains how we ensure that electricity flows from the power supply to the load without it ‘leaking’ away?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes reactive power in an AC electrical circuit?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the meaning of ‘voltage stress’ when applied to ships’ electrical cables?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the primary method of protecting against overloading of an electrical conductor?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes what the difference is between the thermosetting and the thermoplastic insulations used on ships electrical equipment?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why a length of ‘10 Amp’ cable bought from a shop ashore may not be suitable for a circuit carrying 10 Amps on a ship?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why arc and blast are more of a problem with high voltage (HV) electrical systems?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why most circuits on ships are supplied by AC electricity rather than DC?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following describes the best way of protecting the conductors deep inside electrical machines from the effects of excessive temperature?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following describes the best way to protect an electrical cable from mechanical damage where it passes through an area on deck where cargo is loaded and unloaded?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following formulas agrees with Ohms Law?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the most common reason for a rapid rise in the current flowing through an electrical circuit, to a level many times its rated value?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes a possible cause for the softening and weakening of the insulation around an electrical cable?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes a possible reason for someone being seriously hurt following an electric shock of 10mA, even though the current passed through the body for only a fraction of a second?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes a significant problem with thermosetting types of insulation on ships?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes the effect on an electrical cable on a ship if the cable is hit by a lightning strike?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes what happens when a charged capacitor is connected to a load in an electrical circuit?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes why connecting cables are usually fitted with flexible insulation?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options is the way we refer to the restriction to current flow through an inductor in an AC electrical circuit? Refer to the blackboard on the right side of the screen.
ANSWER:

Which one of the following would be a typical power factor for a 440 Volt galley stove?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0231 – High Voltage, Ship’s electrical networks

A ship has a 3 phase electrical network with a neutral point earthed through a 200Ω resistor. The generator phase voltage is 3,000V and the synchronous impedance of the generator is 0.1Ω. What will be the potential fault current if an earth fault occurs on the generator output cable?
ANSWER:

A ship has a 3 phase electrical network with star connected generators and an earthed neutral point. The network line voltage is 440V and phase voltage 254V. If an earth fault occurs on one phase through a circuit of 1Ω impedance what will be the potential fault current?
ANSWER:

Earth leakage circuit breakers are commonly used ashore to protect people from earth faults. Which of the following best describes why earth leakage circuit breakers have not been commonly used on ships’ electrical networks in the past?
ANSWER:

Even on a large passenger ship which generates electricity at 6,000 Volts lighting is normally supplied at voltages of 220 Volts or less. Which one of the following best describes why lighting is not supplied at a higher voltage?
ANSWER:

High voltage ships tend to use earthed neutral electrical networks. Which one of the following best describes how excessive fault currents are prevented in the event of an earth fault on these ships?
ANSWER:

If the earth lamps on your ship looked as shown which of the following would you assume was the most likely problem?
ANSWER:

On shore it is normal practice to connect all exposed metalwork and the neutral point of the supply to earth. Which of the following best describes what normally happens on shore when an earth fault occurs?
ANSWER:

On the main switchboard cabinet for each generator there are normally instruments fitted. Which one of the following best describes the purpose of the 4 position switch often found beneath the generator voltmeter?
ANSWER:

The kilowatt load on the ship’s only running generator is steady but the power factor meter shows a fall from 0.9 to 0.75. Which one of the following best describes the risk that this change in power factor poses for the ship’s electrical network?
ANSWER:

When a conductor is moved through a magnetic field an EMF is produced. Which one of the following is a way to increase the value of EMF produced?
ANSWER:

When talking about electrical power generation on ships we often refer to the ‘prime mover’. Which one of the following best describes a ‘prime mover’?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes what the result would be if earth faults occurred on 2 different phases of a ship’s 3 phase distribution system at the same time?
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes why earth faults are a common problem on ships’ electrical networks?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes how someone on a ship could be killed by electricity while just walking around the engine room?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the fundamental difference in the typical construction of a single phase generator and a 3 phase electrical generator?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the general principle used when a designer is deciding the positions of automatic disconnection devices within a ship’s electrical network?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the main consideration when a designer selects the voltage level for a particular area of a ship’s electrical network?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the main purpose of fitting reverse power protection to an electrical generator’s circuit breaker?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the main purpose of fitting under voltage protection to an electrical generator’s circuit breaker?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the main reason why ships with high voltage electrical networks do not usually have a floating neutral system?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the meaning of ‘discrimination’ when applied to electrical distribution systems on ships?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the need for cooling of 3 phase electrical transformers?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes the primary function of a ship’s electrical distribution system?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why few merchant ships have been fitted with nuclear electrical power generation despite the increasing price of oil fuels?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why it is preferable to use electromagnets when constructing an electrical generator, rather than permanent magnets?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why many electrical transformers are not fitted with overcurrent protection on the secondary circuit output?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why many modern ships are fitted with a computerised Power Management System (PMS)?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why most ships have 3 or more generators which can provide electrical power?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why physical forces can be created from the interaction of 2 magnets?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why the frequencies of 3 phase electrical generators being connected together must be ‘in phase’?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why the overall system power factor is important when operating electrical generators on a ship?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why the overall system power factors tends to change while operating electrical generators on a ship?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes why we do not normally run generators that are supplying the ship’s main switchboard at their maximum continuous output where their fuel efficiency is usually best?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following describes when the under voltage trip in the starter panel of an electric motor is most likely to operate?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following describes where a ‘bus tie’ might be found on a ship with a high electrical power demand?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes how a single device can protect against fast and slow overcurrent faults in a ship’s distribution system?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes the advantage industries ashore have over ships when using electrical power?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes the reason for a ship’s distribution system being arranged for preferential tripping?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes what determines how much mechanical power the prime mover connected to an electrical generator must produce?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes what will happen if the voltages of the main switchboard and incoming generator are not the same at the time of connecting the generator?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes what would happen to the terminal voltage of an AC generator following a typical major load increase if no AVR was fitted?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes why batteries, using chemical generation, are not currently used for the main source of electricity on ships?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes why controlling the electrical network on a ship can be more challenging than controlling a larger network ashore?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes why each feed normally leaves the section boards in a ship’s electrical network via some form of isolation?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes why most electric motors, driving engine room pumps, are usually supplied at around 440 Volts, even if the ship uses electricity at higher voltages for the bow thruster?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0250 – Conflict Management

A chief engineer, who has investigated a conflict between two engineroom ratings, finds that the fitter does not want the oiler to enter the workshop while he is busy working inside. Which one of the following types of conflict is occurring?
ANSWER:

Captain: I saw that the portable extinguisher in the control room has been marked as “okay”. I checked the data of the extinguisher the other day and realized that it should have been ashore for pressure test a month ago. Identify the type of Conflict Language used in the given situation above. Tick on the appropriate box corresponding to your answer.
ANSWER:

Captain: I saw that the portable extinguisher in the wheel house has been marked as “okay”, but when I checked the data the other day, I found out that it should have been taken ashore for a pressure test a month ago. Besides, you checked it twice without remarks. Don’t you realize that the lives of your fellow crewmates are at stake here? Identify the type of Conflict Language used in the given situation above. Tick on the appropriate box corresponding to your answer.
ANSWER:

Captain: Listen Chief, if I can’t get the bunker figures right away, I’ll be frustrated. I’m very tired and I want to send the arrival report to the company immediately so I can get some rest. I want you to instruct the 2nd Engineer to sound the tanks now and take his breakfast afterwards. Identify the type of Conflict Language used in the given situation. Tick on the appropriate box.
ANSWER:

Captain: You listen to me now, Chief. I am the Captain of this ship and I want you to go down and instruct the 2nd Engineer to take the soundings. Then, he may take his breakfast after that. Identify the type of Conflict Language used in the given situation above. Tick on the appropriate box corresponding to your answer.
ANSWER:

Conflicts in meetings can be very disruptive, but they can also be very helpful. Which one of the following is NOT a good conflict handling technique for meetings that get ‘out of control’?
ANSWER:

During the mooring operation, the AB refused to follow the Second Officer’s orders. The AB argued, “This part of the mooring operation is not included in my job description”. In return, the Second Officer shouted angrily at the AB and said, “I will report this incident to the Captain”. Identify the type of conflict manifested in the given situation above. Tick on the appropriate box corresponding to your answer.
ANSWER:

One of the techniques in avoiding and/or resolving conflicts is to accept that healthy disagreement can build better decisions. Which one of the following statements reflects this principle?
ANSWER:

One of the techniques in avoiding and/or resolving conflicts is to discuss differences in values openly. Which one of the following statements does NOT reflect this principle?
ANSWER:

People deal with the so-called “pure” conflict relating to facts at a certain level. Which one of the features given in the options is the level of conflict that is about facts?
ANSWER:

Select from the options the term which best describes the level of the following conflict. ‘You have an unresolved conflict with the messman. You no longer have any contact with him and both of you still have a deep-rooted anger. There seems to be no way to come to terms with each other.’
ANSWER:

Select the option that most accurately completes the following statement. “A conflict is constructive when it…
ANSWER:

Select the option that most accurately completes the following statement. “A conflict is destructive when it…
ANSWER:

Select the option that most accurately completes the following statement. “The advantage of using I-language is that you communicate and express your emotions and intentions without…
ANSWER:

Select the option that most accurately completes the following statement. “In order to arrive at a win-win solution to problems, it is best to…
ANSWER:

Select the term from those given in the options which most accurately fills the gap in the following statement. The ____ expresses what is going on inside us through obliging, cooperating and non-violent means. We tell about how we feel by avoiding to judge, blame or interpret the other person’s actions.
ANSWER:

The 2nd Engineer instructed the motorman to complete his daily cleaning routines in the workshop before taking a coffee break. However, the Motorman refused to follow his order and said, “Usually, there is still work being carried out in the workshop after coffee break, so I will have to start all over again when I return!” The 2nd Engineer got irritated and replied, “I am your superior and I am the one who decides when you should take a break!” Identify the type of conflict manifested in the given situation above. Tick on the appropriate box corresponding to your answer.
ANSWER:

The Captain has been stressed out lately. The schedules of the vessel have been limiting his rest time. Besides, he noticed that some of his officers were demoralized. The 2nd and 3rd Officers kept on intensely questioning his decisions. Then, he asked himself, “Do they dislike or hate me?” Identify the type of conflict manifested in the given situation above. Tick on the appropriate box corresponding to your answer.
ANSWER:

The Filipino Second Officer and his colleague, the Danish First Officer, are not getting along very well. It all started when the First Officer cracked a joke concerning the religious beliefs of the Second Officer. In one of their arguments during a lifeboat inspection, the Second Officer commented, “I really cannot follow such an ignorant and selfish attitude”. Identify the type of conflict manifested in the given situation above. Tick on the appropriate box corresponding to your answer.
ANSWER:

The Master is angry because the third officer was not able to prepare the lifesaving appliances for inspection. Pointing a left finger at the third officer the Master shouts “You are such a lazy officer!” Which one of the options best describes this form of language in the context of conflict?
ANSWER:

The chief mate has been very critical of the crew’s performance after seeing him asleep while on lookout duties on several occasions. If you are the Chief Mate, which of the following statements will you say to AB in order to avoid destructive conflict?
ANSWER:

There has been a complaint from the crew regarding ‘alleged’ unfair usage of the television. Which one of the following types of conflict is this considered to be?
ANSWER:

Tick on the boxes of the statements applicable to you.
ANSWER:

Two crewmen are heard to be arguing with each other about their religious beliefs. Which one of the following types of conflict is this?
ANSWER:

What conflict-handling tool do you think both were able to manage well?
ANSWER:

What do you think best describes the Chief Cook? Can you identify the positive techniques he used?
ANSWER:

When you are attacked personally by another person, which one of the following actions should you take in order to resolve the conflict?
ANSWER:

Which one of the activities given in the options is least likely to lead to a conflict?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is NOT a constructive technique for avoiding and resolving conflicts option?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is NOT a good handling technique when dealing with interpersonal relationship issue?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is NOT a recognised type of conflict?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements about conflicts is TRUE?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements best describes I-Language?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements best describes a technical conflict?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements best describes the disagreement level in conflicts?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements refers to the ‘You’-language?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following types of conflict applies to situations when people want to fight for their personal and cultural values?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following types of conflict is linked to identity, self-esteem, loyalty, or breaking one’s trust and rejection?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following types of conflict is said to be happening when people disagree on what must be done or how to carry out certain tasks?
ANSWER:

Which one of the language types given in the options is characterized by blaming, focusing on the past, finger-pointing and asking leading questions, and, when used in a conversation, may make a conflict worse.
ANSWER:

Which one of the reasons given in the options is considered the main reason why people tend to avoid conflicts?
ANSWER:

Who do you think made a negative statement?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0251 – Culture

A 4th Engineer has seen that some of the entries made by the 1st Engineer in the Oil Record Book are incorrect. The 4th Engineer is aware that such incorrect entries may lead to heavy penalties if found during inspection by port authorities. However, the 4th Engineer is hesitant to raise the issue in case the 1st Engineer either sees it as questioning his capability or gets insulted. Which one of the following cultural orientations is the 4th Engineer showing?
ANSWER:

A newly embarked young officer from a high context communication culture wants to approach his superior from a low context communication culture to pass on some information. How should the young officer effectively deliver the message?
ANSWER:

A newly promoted 3rd Mate from a high-power distance culture joined the ship recently. Most of the shipboard officers and crew are from a low-power distance culture. Which one of the following actions can you take, as the Chief Officer, to help the 3rd Mate to adapt to the culture onboard?
ANSWER:

According to Edgar Schein, culture is divided into three layers. Select, from the following, the one that contains these three layers.
ANSWER:

According to Edgar Schein, which layer of culture refers to a group’s idea of right or wrong and what is good or bad?
ANSWER:

According to Edgar Schein, which one of the following is the term used to describe a group’s unspoken and subconscious rules on how to act, think and behave?
ANSWER:

After the meeting, the Captain called the 1st officer coming from a high power distance culture to discuss the matter. What do you think the Captain might have said to the 1st Officer?
ANSWER:

Although it is not an official rule, it is widely accepted by all seafarers that smoking is only allowed in the day room. Select the option containing the word or phrase that correctly fills the gap in the following statement. According to Edgar Schein this is an example of ___ in the layers of culture.
ANSWER:

As a 2nd Engineer, you observe that a number of maintenance jobs involving engine ratings are not completed as scheduled. Considering that most of the engine ratings are from a collectivist culture, how would you notify them of this concern?
ANSWER:

Despite the fact that Bosun has several years of shipboard experience, he has been very open to accept ideas of other crew members. He believes that his ways of doing things may not always be the best ways at all times. Which one of the intercultural competencies given in the options does the Bosun show?
ANSWER:

During the meeting, the Captain found it difficult to get a clear answer from the group on what happened. He called the Chief Engineer coming from a collectivist culture to seek advice. What advice do you think the Chief Engineer will give the Captain?
ANSWER:

On your first day of working on board the ship, you were amazed to find out that no safety signs are posted in the workshop. In spite of this, all crew members are wearing the necessary personal protective equipment, PPE. Select the option containing the word or phrase that most accurately fills the gap in the following statement. This display of good safety behaviour is an example of ___ in the layers of culture identified by Edgar Schein.
ANSWER:

Select the option containing the word or phrase that most accurately fills the gap in the following statement. ‘People from ______ culture tend to think only of themselves as individuals; they are more focused on their own goals.’
ANSWER:

Select, from the following, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. ‘Emotional need for rules, agreements, and regulations to avoid unfamiliar situations is a characteristic of a culture with……
ANSWER:

Select, from the following, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. ‘When dealing with people from collectivist culture, you have to remember that it is only appropriate to deliver critical feedback…..
ANSWER:

Select, from the following, the word or phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. ‘In a low-power distance culture, subordinates are expected to be consulted, however, in a high-power distance culture the subordinates are expected to be…..
ANSWER:

The following signs about smoking were handed to you. Which of these are you going to use if the target group are more used to high-context communication?
ANSWER:

There are seafarers from some cultures who will simply say “Yes” even if they do not really understand the instructions. They simply do it to avoid losing face but in reality, they really mean “maybe” or “I don’t understand”. For which one of the following communication styles is this behaviour typical?
ANSWER:

To be able to understand the term culture, it is important to understand the meaning of the word – how do we define it and what does it mean to us. However, before we give the answer, we would like to hear your perception of the word culture. Answer the questions below and let us see if we share the same perception.
ANSWER:

When you go onboard a ship, you will get a first impression of the shipboard safety culture by observing items such as helmets, coveralls, safety shoes, goggles and safety signs. Select the option containing the word or phrase that correctly fills the gap in the following statement. According to Edgar Schein these items are considered as ___ in the layers of culture.
ANSWER:

Which behavioral characteristics below are classified under collectivism?
ANSWER:

Which behavioral characteristics below are classified under individualism?
ANSWER:

Which behavioral characteristics below are classified under strong uncertainty avoidance?
ANSWER:

Which behavioral characteristics below are manifested in high power distance culture?
ANSWER:

Which behavioral characteristics below are manifested in low power distance culture?
ANSWER:

Which behavioral characteristics listed below are classified under weak uncertainty avoidance?
ANSWER:

Which of the following scenarios is an example of a poor personal attitude towards different cultures?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is typical in a low power distance culture?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is typical of people from an individualistic culture?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements about collectivist culture is FALSE?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is a feature to be expected in an individualistic culture?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements is typical of a group orientation or collectivist culture?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following terms is NOT a dimension of culture according to Hofstede?
ANSWER:

Which safety behavioral headlines below do you believe are influenced by our cultural background?
ANSWER:

While addressing a spillage risk during the bunker operations, the Captain was able to learn and understand how it was like working with people from a collectivist culture. Which statements below pertain to the Captain’s experience?
ANSWER:

While addressing questions concerning onboard safety risks, the Captain was able to learn and understand how it was like working with people from high power distance culture. Which statements below pertain to the Captain’s experience?
ANSWER:

While the Captain is presenting his ideas during a safety meeting, the Messman offers his opinion on the matter. The Captain acknowledges him and even encourages others to come out with their own ideas, even if they will be in conflict with the Captain’s own ideas. Select, from the following, the phrase that correctly completes the following statement. ‘This scenario is typical in cultures defined as …………
ANSWER:

You are a junior officer from a culture with high context communication style while your Scandinavian Captain communicates in low context. Which of the following actions best describes how you should act in order to communicate effectively with the Captain?
ANSWER:

You are an officer on board a ship and you have a multi-cultural crew. In communicating with other shipboard personnel, which of the following practices should you do?
ANSWER:

You are scheduled to meet an American executive next week. As part of your preparation you have read some material on culture and found out that most Americans prefer the low-context communication style. In order to ensure that the meeting will go smoothly, which of the following measures will be most appropriate?
ANSWER:

You are the Chief Engineer from a low-context communication culture. You are about to set a meeting with your crew members who come from a high-context communication culture. How will you address the crew in an effective way?
ANSWER:

You want to develop the intercultural competencies of your crew. In one of your toolbox meetings, a rating comes up with an idea which is exactly the same as yours. How should you handle this situation in order to encourage others to participate in the meeting?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0253 – Corrective Feedback

Based on the third step of the S.O.E.D. Feedback Model, which one of the following statements can be used in order to describe or clarify the impact of the other person’s performance, conduct, attitude or behaviour?
ANSWER:

Generally, good feedback should highlight the different aspects of the person’s performance. Which one of the following can be considered a feature of ineffective feedback?
ANSWER:

In the fourth step of the S.O.E.D. Feedback Model, the person giving the feedback describes the changes they wish to see. Which one of the following phrases can be used to state these changes?
ANSWER:

Select, from the following options, the phrase which most accurately fills the gap in the following statement. “In giving corrective feedback using the Sandwich Feedback Model, you state the ___ in the second layer or the beef.”
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the combination that most accurately completes the following statement. “The acronym SOED stands for…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase which most accurately completes the following statement. “In the three-layer Sandwich Feedback Model, the second layer, referred to as ‘Beef’, is where you…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase which most accurately completes the following statement. “It is important to communicate critical feedback because, if the problem is left unaddressed, …
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase which most accurately completes the following statement. “One of the main reasons why some officers find it difficult to give feedback is because they…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase which most accurately completes the following statement. “One of the reasons for a feedback model is to determine that the performance feedback is delivered in a…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase which most accurately completes the following statement. “The three layers of the Sandwich Feedback Model in sequential order are the…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase which most accurately fills the gap the following statement. “In third layer, or the final bun, of the Sandwich Feedback Model ____ should be included.
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the word which most accurately completes the following statement. “Giving feedback is difficult especially when the type of feedback you have to deliver is…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the word which most accurately completes the following statement. “When moving from layer 1 to layer 2 in the Sandwich Feedback Model, you should avoid using the word…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the word which most accurately fills the gap in the following statement. “Describing what you expect from the person and the ways that they can change or improve their conduct refers to ___ in the S.O.E.D. Feedback Model.”
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the word which most accurately fills the gap in the following statement. “When using the Sandwich Feedback Model, the word ___ should be used in moving from the first to second layer in order to avoid the receiver taking a defensive position.”
ANSWER:

The Chief Mate has to give some corrective feedback to one of the crew regarding the wearing of incorrect PPE. Using the S.O.E.D. Feedback Model, which one of the following statements should the Chief Mate use in starting the corrective feedback?
ANSWER:

The Sandwich Feedback Model identifies that positive comments delivered in the first layer should motivate the receiver.Select, from the options given, the term which most accurately completes the following statement. “The receiver should become very motivated and be ready to digest the…”
ANSWER:

The following statements were mentioned by the Chief Engineer to the Fitter while giving corrective feedback. Which one of the statements refers to the “Effect step” in the S.O.E.D. Feedback Model?
ANSWER:

The second step in the S.O.E.D. Feedback Model is to describe what you have observed, seen, heard, or experienced. Which one of the following phrases can be used in this layer?
ANSWER:

To which one of the steps of the S.O.E.D. Feedback Model do the following statements correspond? “Lately, I have noticed that you were not paying much attention to our safety policies. There were several instances when I saw that you were not wearing the correct PPE while working.”
ANSWER:

To which one of the steps of the S.O.E.D. Feedback Model does the following statement correspond? “The next time you come across this situation I want you to check our procedures, or consult me if you are unsure.”
ANSWER:

Which of the following options is NOT one of the main reasons why officers find it difficult to give corrective feedback to their subordinates?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the main reason why we should avoid using negative words when giving feedback?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options is a poor reason for using feedback models in communicating performance feedback?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following reasons explains why it is NOT advisable to use the word “but” when moving from layer 1 to layer 2 of the Sandwich Feedback Model?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following reasons is most accurate as to why it is important to follow a certain structure in communicating feedback?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements best describes the reason why people avoid giving feedback?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements corresponds to layer three of the Sandwich Feedback Model?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements describes what should be used to start the first layer of feedback when using the Sandwich Feedback Model?
ANSWER:

Which one of the options is the name given to the tools that can help you communicate performance feedback in an organized way?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0256 – Team Leadership

A newly promoted Captain finds that each one of the multi-cultural officers and crew onboard is different in terms of culture, experience, competence and personality. Which one of the following styles should be used, in this situation, to build an effective onboard team?
ANSWER:

During which phase of the UPI Team Leadership Model are questions, such as, “Who will do the job?”, “When do we start/finish?”, “What resources are required?”, and “How do we do it?” answered?
ANSWER:

In creating the environment for the team to flourish and assemble, which one of the following principles is NOT correct?
ANSWER:

Is the following statement correct in relation to work teams onboard ship? “Being on board a ship does not necessarily mean being part of a team.”
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that correctly completes the following statement. “The three basic interpersonal needs, according to Schutz, are collectively known by the acronym CIA, which stands for control, …
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement in relation to the four levels of readiness. “Low follower readiness is shown by those who are…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement in relation to the four levels of readiness. “Low to moderate follower readiness refers to followers who are…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. A good leader is capable of performing their duties by varying their role and their conduct. When carrying out risk assessments and dealing with critical situations they are acting as the…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. “ The goal of the first phase of the UPI model, which is described as the think, know and feeling phase, is to…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. “A work team is defined as a small collection of people who share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. “Democratic leadership style is NOT considered lasting and ideal because…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. “During the third phase of the UPI model, the leader…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. “Empowered team members tend to…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. “One of the outcomes of empowering team members, especially when they are involved in team activities such as the development of ideas, is that they will…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. “The UPI Team Leadership Model is a way to understand how to develop powerful, creative and self-empowered teams. The abbreviation UPI stands for…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. “The readiness level of the crew, which is the basis for Situational leadership thinking, is defined as…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. “The second phase of the UPI model is when the leader and other responsible employees…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the phrase that most accurately completes the following statement. “Typically, an authoritarian leadership style is solely based on the principle of…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the word that most accurately completes the following statement. “Team leaders seek to create the conditions that enable team members to reach common…
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, the word that most accurately fills the gap in the following statement. “In authoritarian leadership, other people’s opinions and beliefs are seldom appreciated resulting in a misuse of power based on ____ and fear.”
ANSWER:

The Chief Engineer observes that, although highly motivated, the Fourth Engineer lacks competence to do the assigned maintenance tasks. Based on the principles of situational leadership, which one of the following should the Chief Engineer do?
ANSWER:

The Chief Mate observes that both the Second and Third Mates are confident and competent watch keepers. Based on the principles of situational leadership, which one of the following actions should the Chief Mate take in this situation?
ANSWER:

The Second Engineer ensures that new crew members are properly informed before they start any maintenance work by explaining the task, the risks involved, based on the latest risk assessment, and by answering their queries. Which phase of the UPI Team Leadership Model is represented in this example?
ANSWER:

The ratings and junior officers highly respect the Bosun because of his experience, age and personality and they often seek his advice on personal and family matters. In the context of leadership, which one of the types of power does the Bosun have?
ANSWER:

The ship’s Electro-Technical Officer (ETO) has the respect of the officers, the crew and the Superintendent because of his excellent work performance. In the context of leadership, which one of the types of power does the ETO have?
ANSWER:

The three interpersonal needs which must be fulfilled in order to create good teams are known by the acronym CIA, according to Schutz. Which one of the following terms is the interpersonal need represented by the letter ‘A’ in the acronym CIA?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is NOT a means by which both the team leader and team members can reach common goals?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘leadership’?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements best describes why it is important to have effective team leadership?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements relating to team leadership is NOT correct?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0257 – Stress Management

A Chief Engineer begins to feel irritable, restless and unapproachable upon discovering that more than 5% of the planned maintenance jobs were not completed on time. What behavioural symptom of stress is being shown by the Chief Engineer?
ANSWER:

A newly promoted chief mate is to be in charge of the safety committee meeting for the first time. While waiting for the meeting to commence the chief mate starts getting nervous and restless with the hands becoming cold and sweaty. For which one of the types of stress given in the options are these typical symptoms?
ANSWER:

An officer feels that he is constantly behind his schedules. Requests keep dropping down at him. He has trouble sleeping and is spending all his time accomplishing crucial tasks. He begins to lose interest in his work. He has a hard time concentrating on his responsibilities and has a headache most of the time. What kind of stress does he experience?
ANSWER:

An officer will give a presentation for the rest of the officers onboard for the first time. While waiting for his turn to present, he starts getting nervous and restless and his hands become cold and sweaty. What kind of stress does he experience?
ANSWER:

In the Four Step Model of managing stress, what should you do next after identifying the stress symptoms and acknowledging your stress?
ANSWER:

Negative thoughts are starting to fill up the officer’s head. Hence, he decides to sit down and examine if his thoughts have anything to do with reality. Which of the mentality tools is he using?
ANSWER:

Of the two ABs, Peter works faster than Greg. While Peter is usually much more competitive and aggressive, Greg takes his assigned jobs one at time and works steadily. Which one of the two ABs is LESS prone to stress?
ANSWER:

Of two ABs, Peter works faster than Greg. While Peter is often very competitive and aggressive, Greg takes his assigned jobs one at time and works steadily. Which one of the two ABs is MORE prone to stress?
ANSWER:

Peter, the second officer, is losing interest in his work as there are always new demands and all of his time is spent on crucial tasks. Often, he feels behind schedule, finds it difficult to concentrate or sleep and has headaches. For which one of the following types of stress are these typical symptoms?
ANSWER:

Peter, the second officer, is losing interest in his work as there are always new demands and all of his time is spent on crucial tasks. Often, he feels behind schedule, finds it difficult to concentrate or sleep and has headaches. In the above scenario what psychological symptom of stress does Peter show?
ANSWER:

Peter, the second officer, is losing interest in his work as there are always new demands and all of his time is spent on crucial tasks. Often, he feels behind schedule, finds it difficult to concentrate or sleep and has headaches. In the above scenario, what physical symptom of stress does Peter show?
ANSWER:

Research shows that a high level of stress has a large impact on the safety awareness and capability of an individual to perform the tasks. Which one of the ranges given in the options is recognised as the percentage of workplace accidents caused by stress?
ANSWER:

Select one phrase from those given in the options which correctly completes the following statement. “A person experiences chronic stress when they are faced with a stressful situation and they…
ANSWER:

Select the one term from those given in the options which most accurately completes the following statement. “All of the following are behavioural symptoms of stress EXCEPT for…
ANSWER:

Select the one term from those given in the options which most accurately completes the following statement. “All of the following are physical symptoms of stress EXCEPT for…
ANSWER:

Select the one term from those given in the options which most accurately completes the following statement. “All of the following are psychological symptoms of stress EXCEPT for…
ANSWER:

Select the one term from those given in the options which most accurately completes the following statement. “Negative thinking causes stress because it damages your confidence. All of the following tools are useful in combating negative thinking EXCEPT…
ANSWER:

Select the one term from those given in the options which most accurately completes the following statement. “The ability to manage stressors is referred to as…
ANSWER:

The Second Mate, who is about to go on watch so cannot take any rest, is stressed and exhausted after more than 5 hours of cargo operations. For motivation, they repeatedly think of an inspirational line – “I can do it!”. What one of the following stress coping strategy is the Second Mate using?
ANSWER:

The officer is stressed out, and to get hold of what he thinks about the situation, he examines his thoughts for a while. Which of the mentality tools below is he using?
ANSWER:

The officer noticed that negative thoughts dominate his mind. He wanted to replace these thoughts with positive ones by affirming to himself that he could achieve his goals, and by believing that he is a valued person, etc. Which of the mentality tools is he using?
ANSWER:

Uncertainty is one of the causes of stress. Which one of the actions identified in the options should you do in order to combat uncertainty?
ANSWER:

What conditions below describe a stressed out person?
ANSWER:

What is the most effective way to counter uncertainty?
ANSWER:

What should you avoid when you are stressed?
ANSWER:

Which group of symptoms below is composed of behavioural symptoms?
ANSWER:

Which group of symptoms below is composed of physical symptoms?
ANSWER:

Which group of symptoms below is composed of psychological symptoms?
ANSWER:

Which one of the factors given in the options is the most likely to make someone stressed.
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is an example of workplace stressor?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the first step in the Four Step Model of managing stress?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following is the fourth step in the Four Step Model of managing stress?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options is NOT a measure that you can take in order to reduce stress?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements about acute stress is correct?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements about chronic stress is FALSE?
ANSWER:

Which one of the statements given in the options about individual stressors is NOT correct?
ANSWER:

Which one of the statements given in the options about personalities and stress is NOT correct?
ANSWER:

Which one of the terms given in the options is used to identify the process by which you observe your thoughts for a while, especially when under stress, and become aware of what is going through your head?
ANSWER:

Which one of the terms given in the options is used to identify the tool that is used to combat negative thinking by reviewing all negative thoughts and assessing if they are true?
ANSWER:

Which one of these groups of stress symptoms are behavioural symptoms?
ANSWER:

Which one of these groups of stress symptoms are psychological symptoms?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0271 – Leadership, Communication for maritime leaders

Electric Propulsion, Power electronics
ANSWER:

As the chairman of a meeting, which ONE of these actions should NOT be taken?
ANSWER:

As the duty officer on watch during manoeuvring, which ONE of the following actions should you take in order to secure a closed loop communication between the captain and helmsman?
ANSWER:

As the receiver of a message, which ONE of these actions would you take to ensure that a closed loop communication is attained?
ANSWER:

Communication on board can be done using various means. Which ONE of these is NOT applicable to onboard or internal communication?
ANSWER:

Here is a corrective feedback message forwarded by the master to the chief cook. Based on the SOED feedback model, which ONE of these statements refers to the ‘effect’ part of the model?
ANSWER:

Select from these the ONE which is NOT an example of external communication.
ANSWER:

The chief engineer asked the fourth engineer to give him the fuel ROB figures. The instruction was not clear to the fourth engineer, but he simply said “Yes sir!” in order to avoid looking foolish. Which ONE of the types of communication barrier is the above an example of?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these actions is generally associated with good listening skills?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these best describes how communication should be onboard the ship?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these components of communication confirms to the sender that the message was correctly received and interpreted?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these groups of headings does the acronym TIAS stand for in relation to open communication?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these is a closed question?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these statements does NOT support the importance of effective communication on board the ship?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these would be the best course of action when issues are raised in meetings that are not originally part of the meeting agenda.
ANSWER:

Which THREE of the following are recognized as components of communication?
ANSWER:

Which THREE of these items are best suited for use in internal communication?
ANSWER:

Which THREE of these personal attitudes are barriers to effective communication?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of these are examples of voice distance communication?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of these are practical uses of communication in the maritime setting?
ANSWER:

Words stand alone in which ONE of the following forms of communication?
ANSWER:

You are about to give the bosun feedback on his poor performance. Which ONE of these best describes how you should give the feedback?
ANSWER:

You are doing some paper work when the fitter knocks on your door and tells you that he has some concerns about his appraisal. Which ONE of these actions should you avoid in order to show good active listening skills?
ANSWER:

You are the 2nd Engineer and you notice that tools are scattered and improperly secured in the workshop. You expect the Fitter to secure these tools after every usage. Which ONE of these best describes the most appropriate course of action that you can take?
ANSWER:

You are the chief engineer and while trying to resolve a conflict among ratings, you ask them a number of questions. Which ONE of these is an open question?
ANSWER:

You observed that the third mate has not been doing the maintenance jobs for lifesaving and firefighting equipment. Following the TIAS principle, which ONE of these statements would it be best to use in approaching the issue with the third mate?
ANSWER:

‘Face-to-face communication is the preferred method when… Select the TWO phrases that could accurately complete the above statement.
ANSWER:

‘In the Sandwich feedback model, you start by saying three positive things about the person. This is followed by the second layer called beef which should be preceded by the word ______ instead of ‘but’. Select the ONE word which most accurately completes the above statement.
ANSWER:

‘The ___ could be physical, social, chronological or cultural dimension where a particular communication is based upon.’ Select the ONE word which most accurately completes the above statement.
ANSWER:

‘The key idea that a person wants to convey which is composed of verbal and non-verbal symbols.’ Which ONE of these components of communication is the above statement an example of?
ANSWER:

‘When composing e-mails, you should be extra cautious when capitalizing the letters because it…’ Complete the above statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘___ can be used during crane and mooring operations where the use of voice communication, with or without the aid of communication equipment, is not feasible.’ Complete the above statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate word or phrase.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0273 – Leadership, Shipboard Personell Management and Training

A structured shipboard training programme helps… Complete the statement by selecting TWO, most appropriate phrases.
ANSWER:

A third engineer is onboard a large new tanker. The vessel is well equipped with the latest technology and as such the third engineer is complacent due to the automation bias. What can the third engineer do to avoid the boredom that is beginning to set in? Select TWO most appropriate options.
ANSWER:

Automation bias leads to reduced level of situational awareness. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

Errors of commission occur when there is no response or action in situations where it is required. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

How can the company help reinforce the learning process and implement a training programme onboard ship? Select ONE most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

In management without leadership there is no direction for the team. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

Informal structures generally stem from… Complete the statement with the ONE, most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

Mentoring is more structured than coaching. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

Not wearing the correct or complete PPE is an error of omission. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

Select ONE, most appropriate option that defines SMART goals.
ANSWER:

The Company Training Officer or CTO is responsible for organising the practical training programme at sea. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

The deck officers and ratings report to the Chief Mate. State whether the statement is true is false.
ANSWER:

The fourth quadrant of the Johari window represents the area where your personal abilities are unknown to you and your team members. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

The master is responsible for… Complete the statement by selecting the TWO, most appropriate phrases.
ANSWER:

The organisational chart illustrated in the Company’s Safety Management System (SMS) is a representation of… Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

The vessel is in port loading cargo. Company policy means that the chief mate cannot go ashore as he is responsible for loading the cargo. However, the master realises that the chief mate has had a busy few weeks. He therefore takes over cargo loading and sends the chief mate ashore. Which ONE of these is the most likely reason for the master’s action? Select the ONE, most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following is NOT a normal method of shipboard training?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following most appropriately defines an error chain?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these most appropriately defines fatigue?
ANSWER:

Which THREE of the following factors are the most common reasons for fatigue?
ANSWER:

Which THREE of these are methods to assess shipboard training?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of the following are factors that are most likely to affect informal structures?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of these are considered as management focus areas?
ANSWER:

‘Active failures are…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘After a near miss has been observed…’ Complete the statement by selecting TWO, most appropriate phrases.
ANSWER:

‘Automation complacency leads to…’ Complete the statement by selecting ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘Automation complacency occurs when…’ Complete the statement by selecting the TWO, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘Designated leadership is…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘Examples of latent conditions are…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘In leadership with management…’ Complete the statement with the ONE, most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

‘Mentoring is…’ Complete the statement by selecting ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘SWOT analysis stands for…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘The second quadrant of the Johari window represents…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

‘When there is leadership without management…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0274 – Leadership, Task and workload management

A senior officer who provides too much input, direction and review of the delegated work to a junior officer or rating is doing ________, which is the opposite of effective delegation.
ANSWER:

A task is simply the described activity that should be carried out by an individual or a team, while a workload is the _________ that is being demanded from an individual for a particular period.
ANSWER:

All of the following are external factors that can cause resource constraints EXCEPT ________.
ANSWER:

All of the following are task and workload management tools EXCEPT ________.
ANSWER:

As an officer, which of the following techniques should you NOT use to maintain an appropriate level of shipboard workload?
ANSWER:

As tasks become ______, the higher the workload becomes.
ANSWER:

During cargo loading operation of a crude tanker, the Deck Watchkeeper continuously monitors the cargo level. He considers this task as ________ that he needs to prioritize to achieve the team’s goal of safe operation and to avoid overflow. If indeed it overflows, it will trigger an urgent and important activity that is considered critical.
ANSWER:

In which of the following situations will shipboard crew have a high possibility of experiencing time constraints?
ANSWER:

It is the perceived amount of effort that is being demanded from an individual for a particular period.
ANSWER:

It refers to giving authority and responsibility to another person to carry out specific tasks. However, the person who gives the authority remains accountable for the outcome.
ANSWER:

It refers to the activities, jobs or tasks that are part of the standard duties and responsibilities of shipboard personnel as stated in the Safety Management System (SMS).
ANSWER:

It refers to the particular activity described and characterized to be done by an individual or team for a certain purpose. The issue on how much effort it requires from the person or team is not yet relevant here.
ANSWER:

Leadership, Task and workload management
ANSWER:

Preparing the applicable work permit before starting the job ensures that all involved parties will become aware and no other activities that will use the same resources will be carried out. This is an example of ______.
ANSWER:

Seafarers with low workload have the tendency to become all of the following EXCEPT __________.
ANSWER:

Shipboard workload can be assessed by considering the perceived difficulty level of the tasks, its urgency and importance and __________.
ANSWER:

Soliciting feedback is done during _______ to find the outcome and to determine what needs to be improved and what practices should be retained.
ANSWER:

The Chief Mate is assisting the port inspector with cargo documentation. He needs to read the draft for calculating the cargo quantity but it is more urgent and important that he provides the document to the inspector right away. Which of the following options should the Chief Mate do to address this time constraint?
ANSWER:

The Third Engineer was issued with five work orders by the Chief Engineer. All of these maintenance jobs are due within the week. Assuming that the Third Engineer has no other activities except for these five maintenance jobs, how should he/she prioritize the tasks?
ANSWER:

These activities in the Urgent/Important Matrix do not lead to the achievement of any goals. These are considered distractions and should be avoided as much as possible.
ANSWER:

This tool is used for prioritizing tasks. It is represented as a matrix with four quadrants that vary in the level of urgency and importance of tasks.
ANSWER:

Time constraints are caused by factors that you may or may not have control on. Some examples of factors that you have control on are work habits, __________ and prioritization skills.
ANSWER:

To minimize critical activities in quadrant 1 of the Urgent/Important Matrix, you should spend more time doing tasks that will achieve your personal and/or team goals in quadrant ___.
ANSWER:

Which of the following options correctly describes coordination?
ANSWER:

Which of the following options is a feedback mechanism to check if planning outcomes are achieved after a shipboard operation?
ANSWER:

Which of the options below exemplify proper ways of addressing time and resource constraints? There are two correct answers.
ANSWER:

While the ship is at port, an AB became sick and was immediately sent home for medication. The replacement was still being processed. While waiting for the replacement’s arrival, the ship was short of one deck hand in cleaning the cargo hold. This lack of personnel is an example of _______.
ANSWER:

While urgent activities lead to the achievement of another person’s goals, important activities have outcomes that lead to the achievement of ________.
ANSWER:

You have no control on the following factors that can cause time constraints EXCEPT __________.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0276 – Leadership, Decision making techniques

A decision made in simple situations and based solely on personal experience, common sense or intuition is called ________.
ANSWER:

According to the STCW Manila Amendments, all of the following shipboard personnel are required to have the knowledge and ability to apply decision-making techniques EXCEPT __________.
ANSWER:

All of the following are conditions where the open and closed autocratic decision-making styles are applicable EXCEPT which option?
ANSWER:

All of the following are decision-making tools you can use to define the problem and set the goal EXCEPT which option?
ANSWER:

All of the following are forms of decision-making EXCEPT which option?
ANSWER:

In decision-making, the two options that are assessed to be the most workable are called _______.
ANSWER:

In the questioning techniques, what type of question should you use to encourage generous response?
ANSWER:

In this decision-making style, you have the absolute authority to make the decision based on what you currently know or aware of without consulting anybody.
ANSWER:

It is defined as the process of selecting the course or courses of action based on a generated list of options conceived upon careful assessment of the situation.
ANSWER:

SWOT Analysis is a decision-making tool that can be used for which step in the decision-making process?
ANSWER:

Seafarers should possess good decision-making skills because __________.
ANSWER:

The Advantages/disadvantages and CS2 techniques are decision-making tools for ________.
ANSWER:

The CS2 technique is a tool for assessing options by comparing their relative strengths based on all of the following issues EXCEPT which option?
ANSWER:

The Captain called for a meeting to discuss where to allocate the ship’s recreational fund. He facilitated the meeting and allowed the officers and crew to give their suggestions. After the discussions, all voted and the Captain followed the decision of the majority. What decision-making style did the Captain use in this scenario?
ANSWER:

The acronym SWOT stands for strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and _____.
ANSWER:

The decision-making process starts with ___________.
ANSWER:

The decision-making style of individual consultation is most suitable in which of the following situations?
ANSWER:

This decision-making tool is used to make a collective assessment involving different individuals without fear of being criticized, opposed or taken for granted.
ANSWER:

This step in the decision-making process deals with creating the correct picture of the situation.
ANSWER:

This step in the decision-making process is carried out by comparing the results of the decision with the goal defined in the first step.
ANSWER:

This type of options remains after eliminating those that do not appear to be realistic, practical or appropriate to the situation.
ANSWER:

What decision-making style do you use when you disclose your intention and ask other individuals for specific information or opinion?
ANSWER:

When are consultative and collaborative decision-making styles applicable?
ANSWER:

Which of the following options is an appropriate non-verbal skill for active listening?
ANSWER:

Without disclosing his intention, the Chief Mate asked the Chief Engineer about remaining onboard (ROB) quantities of fuel oil (FO) and diesel oil (DO) to compute the maximum loadable cargo. What decision-making style did the Chief Mate use?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0278 – Marine environmental awareness, Sustainable shipping

Describe THREE sustainable options for handling of solid waste:
ANSWER:

It is possible to cut emissions by ‘after treatment’ of exhaust gases. NOx emissions can be reduced by using which ONE of the following:
ANSWER:

Oceans provide food and regulate our climate. Select TWO statements that describe other important aspects of the oceans to humans.
ANSWER:

Regarding the profit P, choose the ONE option a sustainable company focuses on:
ANSWER:

Select ONE method of waste management on board that is encouraged by MARPOL annex V:
ANSWER:

Select ONE of the following options that best describes the largest effects of modern day shipping on the marine environment.
ANSWER:

Select ONE option that correctly describes how economic incentive schemes may lead to a better environmental performance of ships.
ANSWER:

Select ONE option that describes the main source of oxygen in the oceans.
ANSWER:

Select ONE option that describes the reasons why the diversity of deep sea life can be astounding.
ANSWER:

Select ONE option that describes who is most responsible for actions that you take on board which have potential environmental consequences.
ANSWER:

Select ONE option that is mandatory for all ships in MARPOL annex V:
ANSWER:

Select ONE option that most accurately completes the following statement. The open ocean is a nutrient poor environment, mainly because …
ANSWER:

Select ONE option why open oceans produce most phytoplankton (and most primary production).
ANSWER:

Select THREE Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas, PSSA’s from the list below.
ANSWER:

Select THREE appropriate actions where every individual onboard can contribute to minimizing the environmental impact of shipping.
ANSWER:

Select THREE appropriate actions where officers onboard can contribute to minimizing the environmental impact of shipping.
ANSWER:

Select THREE changes from historic to modern shipping that illustrate the changes in human activities
ANSWER:

Select THREE differences between open oceans and coastal seas.
ANSWER:

Select THREE different treatment methods used for killing organisms in ballast water
ANSWER:

Select THREE economic benefits of sustainable shipping
ANSWER:

Select THREE examples of possible new solutions for energy supply on ships:
ANSWER:

Select THREE examples of voluntary best practices related to sustainable shipping
ANSWER:

Select THREE of the following technical installations and/or procedures that prevent discharges of oil to the sea.
ANSWER:

Select THREE of the given options that best describe the three aspects of sustainable development.
ANSWER:

Select THREE options that apply to the Planet P, which is one of the three pillars of sustainability.
ANSWER:

Select THREE options that apply to the role of the oceans in regulating global climate.
ANSWER:

Select THREE options that best describe how sustainable businesses respond to people’s awareness of global environmental problems.
ANSWER:

Select THREE options that best describe the advantages of using shore side electricity accurately.
ANSWER:

Select THREE options that describe engine-based measures to reduce NOx emissions.
ANSWER:

Select THREE options that describe how proper personal behaviour leads to prevention of pollution:
ANSWER:

Select THREE options where an officer can use knowledge and awareness about environmental issues.
ANSWER:

Select THREE reasons why sustainable development is becoming increasingly important.
ANSWER:

Select THREE reasons why sustainable shipping is becoming increasingly important.
ANSWER:

Select THREE statements that best describe the living circumstances in the deep sea.
ANSWER:

Select TWO Special Areas from the list below.
ANSWER:

Select TWO advantages that smaller open ocean phytoplankton cells have, compared to larger coastal plankton.
ANSWER:

Select TWO consequences of the complexity of food webs.
ANSWER:

Select TWO examples of deep sea areas that are extremely productive for sea life.
ANSWER:

Select TWO initiatives by IMO to improve the reputation of shipping and to promote the vital role that shipping plays in the international economy.
ANSWER:

Select TWO options that apply to food chains in coastal seas.
ANSWER:

Select TWO options that apply to food chains in open oceans.
ANSWER:

Select TWO options that apply to the Green Award System.
ANSWER:

Select TWO options that best complete the following statement. ‘Increasing sustainability of the shipping sector…
ANSWER:

Select TWO options that best describe the balance between Planet, People and Profit (three P’s).
ANSWER:

Select TWO options that best describe the combination of methods to treat ballast water.
ANSWER:

Select TWO options that best describe the consequences of the food chain 10% rule.
ANSWER:

Select TWO options that describe IMO’s focus on good reputation of the shipping industry.
ANSWER:

Select TWO options that give valid reasons why cargo owners may ask shipping companies to report their environmental performance.
ANSWER:

Select TWO statements that best describe how oceans affect the climate.
ANSWER:

Select the ONE correct option that defines why more fish biomass can be found in coastal areas than in open oceans.
ANSWER:

Select the ONE option that best describes why, in coastal waters, sinking of plankton to the sea floor (where it is darker) is not a big risk.
ANSWER:

Select the ONE option that most accurately completes the following statement. ‘An important result of sustainable development is that …
ANSWER:

Select the ONE option that most accurately completes the following statement. ‘The example of Shell and the Brent Spar shows …
ANSWER:

Select the ONE option that most accurately completes the following statement: According to regulations, governments should provide adequate waste reception facilities for ships:
ANSWER:

Select the ONE option that most accurately completes the following statement: Reducing NOx emissions means …
ANSWER:

Select the ONE option that most accurately completes the following statement: ‘The differences in plankton size between open oceans and coastal seas have the following consequence for food chains…
ANSWER:

Select the ONE option that states how the process where plants in the sea (mainly phytoplankton) turn carbon dioxide (CO2) and water in sugar and oxygen (O2) is called:
ANSWER:

Select the ONE option which correctly describes the oily waste which may be discharged into the sea provided some conditions are met:
ANSWER:

Select the ONE situation where use of shore side electricity is a particularly practical way to reduce local air emissions.
ANSWER:

Select the TWO options that apply to the People ‘P’.
ANSWER:

Select the TWO statements that best describe how humans and their behaviour can help in obtaining environmental sustainability:
ANSWER:

State whether the following statement is true or false. ‘The Black Sea is a PPSA’
ANSWER:

The IMO has estimated that combined operational and technical measures have the potential to reduce ships CO2 emissions by as much as:
ANSWER:

The cod population around Newfoundland disappeared because of overfishing. In the early 1990s, all fishing was stopped, but the cod have not yet returned. Select the ONE correct option that describes the reason for this.
ANSWER:

The following food chain: bacteria – mussels – octopuses, is typical for:
ANSWER:

The total area covered by sea is.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following methods can be used to reduce SOx emissions.
ANSWER:

Which ONE option most accurately completes the following statement? ‘Switching from HFO to distillate fuels such as MDO significantly reduces emissions of…’
ANSWER:

Which ONE statement applies to life in the open ocean?
ANSWER:

Which of the following TWO statements apply to the use of oily water separators?
ANSWER:

Which of the following TWO statements apply to waste collection procedures in ports?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0390 – Harassment and bullying

A Russian officer observes that the Filipino Rating takes too much time in finishing the job. The Russian tells him: Don’t waste time thinking, just eat some banana and get the job done. This is an example of _________.
ANSWER:

A certain behaviour which is acceptable to some people may be unacceptable to another individual or group. What common characteristic of harassment and bullying is described?
ANSWER:

A person may lose his/her temper sometimes. This may be tolerated if the person apologises when calmed down. On the other hand, repeated sarcasm, belittling and abuse are considered harassment and bullying. What common characteristic of harassment and bullying is described here?
ANSWER:

A senior officer initiates intimate advances to a female cadet in exchange for her faster promotion. The senior officer’s behaviour is an example of _________.
ANSWER:

All of the following are among the nine characteristics protected by the laws of European Union and many countries EXCEPT which one?
ANSWER:

All of the following are potential negative effects of harassment and bullying to the company EXCEPT which option?
ANSWER:

All of the following situations are examples of bullying EXCEPT which option?
ANSWER:

Bullies do not _____. So during the direct confrontation, repeat what you have said, clearly and firmly, until it registers.
ANSWER:

Crew members who show depression, unhappiness, reluctance to communicate, or decrease in motivation and job performance are all ______.
ANSWER:

How can the senior officer ensure that the complainant will feel at ease in reporting the harassment or bullying case?
ANSWER:

In explaining the process, the senior officer should tell that he/she will ask the complainant a number of questions and write notes in order to __________.
ANSWER:

In order to avoid the perception of bullying, there should be no _______ and no picking on particular crew members when assigning jobs.
ANSWER:

In order to ensure that the responsible person will take time to hear your concern, how should you alert him/her? Choose the best answer from the statements below.
ANSWER:

It is an offensive, embarrassing, intimidating or humiliating behaviour directed at a person or group because of his, her, or their skin colour.
ANSWER:

Showing empathy to the other person is a way for the alleged bully to break the habit of bullying others. Which of the following is NOT a proper way of showing empathy?
ANSWER:

The Chief Officer tells the first timer Cadet that everyone goes through the same initiation in their first vessel. If you are the Cadet, how should you reply to the Chief Officer?
ANSWER:

The Second Engineer is a funny guy who always cracks jokes on other crew members. However, the Fitter finds the jokes not funny as his personal character has become the usual target. When the Fitter tells the Second Engineer that he should stop it, the latter reacts that it is just a joke that should not be taken seriously. If you are the Fitter, how should you reply to the Second Engineer?
ANSWER:

The Second Engineer is not aware that his subordinates perceive him as a bully because of the alleged unfair allocation of work among the engine personnel. They believe that in this respect, they are being bullied. What should the Second Engineer do to address the situation?
ANSWER:

The female Third Officer feels embarrassed and humiliated every time the Second Officer touches her hand and looks at her with malice. The Second Officer’s behaviour is an example of ______?
ANSWER:

The increase in heart rate and blood pressure and adrenaline rush are arousal signals that prepare the bully for his/her aggressive behaviour. What should the bully do in order to reverse these signals?
ANSWER:

The person being harassed or bullied should avoid doing all of the following actions EXCEPT which option?
ANSWER:

The persons who might be harassing or bullying others should break this habit through behavioural changes. What are the four behavioural tendencies that they should be made aware of?
ANSWER:

To get the facts from the AB who claims he was bullied, the Master asks him a series of questions and the AB responds with very few and basic answers. The Master would like to dig deeper into the allegations. How can the Master achieve this?
ANSWER:

What is the positive impact to the person being harassed or bullied of seeking help and support from other crew members?
ANSWER:

When elaborating the details of the alleged harassment or bullying behaviour, you should AVOID _______.
ANSWER:

When you first realise you are being systematically picked on, start _______ where and when it occured, what happened, what was said by both parties, and how you felt.
ANSWER:

Which of the following actions should the senior officer do in order to handle the harassment and bullying complaint properly?
ANSWER:

Which of the following options is a form of discrimination which creates feelings of unease, humiliation, embarrassment, intimidation or discomfort to the person on the receiving end.
ANSWER:

Which of the following situations can be classified as bullying?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements about bullying is FALSE?
ANSWER:

Why is it important to be sensitive and patient when talking with the complainant or alleged bully?
ANSWER:

_________ is a form of harassment where a person or group is made to feel frightened or intimidated through verbal or physical actions that are unacceptable, hostile, or not funny.
ANSWER:

___________ involves the use of electronic media such as cellphones, tablets and computers to threaten, humiliate or embarrass a person or group.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0520 – Elementary first aid, Principles of first aid

How do we check for breathing?
ANSWER:

How long do we check for breathing?
ANSWER:

What are the three Ps in relation to first aid?
ANSWER:

What does A.B.C.D.E. stand for when triaging casualties?
ANSWER:

What is first aid?
ANSWER:

What is the first thing to check for when approaching a casualty?
ANSWER:

What is triage?
ANSWER:

What position do we put an unconscious breathing casualty into?
ANSWER:

What should you do if the casualty is not breathing?
ANSWER:

What technique do we use for opening a casualty’s airway?
ANSWER:

Which of these is it important to tell the medical officer when they arrives? Select the THREE correct answers.
ANSWER:

Who is responsible for delivering first aid?
ANSWER:

Why do we do first aid? Select the FOUR correct answers.
ANSWER:

Why is it important to deal with circulation injuries quickly? Select the THREE correct answers.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0521 – Elementary first aid, Assessing the casualty

How do we monitor the casualty’s condition when they are in the recovery position?
ANSEWER:

How do we turn a casualty from their front onto their back?
ANSEWER:

On encountering a first aid emergency situation, what is the first thing you should do?
ANSEWER:

What does DRsAB stand for?
ANSEWER:

What is a secondary survey?
ANSEWER:

What is the best way to approach a casualty if possible?
ANSEWER:

What position would we use for an unconscious casualty with a chest injury?
ANSEWER:

When should we remove clothing when carrying out a secondary survey?
ANSEWER:

When would we not put a casualty in the recovery position? Select the TWO correct answers.
ANSEWER:

Which of the following signs could indicate injury when carrying out a secondary survey? Select applyas many answers as you think are correct.
ANSEWER:

Why do we need to check our hands as we carry out the secondary survey?
ANSEWER:

Why do we put a casualty into the recovery position?
ANSEWER:

Why is it important that the alarm is raised quickly when finding a first aid emergency situation?
ANSEWER:

Why might we need to use the Superman roll on a casualty?
ANSEWER:

Seagull CBT 0522 – Elementary first aid, Facilities and equipment

How long can you keep an open bottle of eye wash solution?
ANSWER:

Medical facilities on board are generally quite limited. What type of ship may have fully equipped medical areas with doctors and nurses on board?
ANSWER:

What are triangular bandages used for?
ANSWER:

What features of a Neil Robertson stretcher makes it ideal for enclosed space rescue? Select the TWO correct answers.
ANSWER:

What is the main difference between a scoop stretcher and the other types of stretcher that may be on board?
ANSWER:

What type of stretcher is best suited to spinal or neck injuries?
ANSWER:

What type of stretcher is often carried as a minimum requirement on board?
ANSWER:

What type of stretcher is often carried by search and rescue helicopters?
ANSWER:

Which of the following pieces of equipment must be in a first aid kit to meet minimum requirements?
ANSWER:

Who can be medical officer on board?
ANSWER:

Who states the minimum requirements of medical equipment that must be carried on board?
ANSWER:

Why are gauze swabs included in a first aid kit? Select the TWO correct answers.
ANSWER:

Why are gloves included in a first aid kit?
ANSWER:

Why is it important that you know what medical facilities and equipment are available on board your vessel?
ANSWER:

Why should we not use a safety pin to fasten a bandage?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0523 – Elementary first aid, Causes of unconsciousness

After how long does a seizure become a medical emergency?
ANSWER:

Approximately how long does it take for a hypoglycaemic casualty to become unconscious?
ANSWER:

At what body temperature would a casualty start to suffer from heat stroke?
ANSWER:

At what body temperature would a casualty start to suffer mild hypothermia?
ANSWER:

At what body temperature would a casualty with hypothermia become unconscious?
ANSWER:

How can a poison be absorbed into the body? Select as many answers as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

How do we treat a casualty who has ingested a poisonous substance.
ANSWER:

How long does a faint generally last?
ANSWER:

How much force should be used when delivering abdominal thrusts?
ANSWER:

How quickly should we try to warm up a hypothermic casualty?
ANSWER:

If a casualty is diabetic and is suffering from hyperglycaemia, approximately how long would it take for them to become unconscious if left untreated?
ANSWER:

If a diabetic casualty was hypoglycaemic, what treatment would we give?
ANSWER:

What % of heart muscle will be damaged if a heart attack is fatal?
ANSWER:

What causes a casualty to faint?
ANSWER:

What do we use the FAST test to check for?
ANSWER:

What does the abbreviation FAST stand for?
ANSWER:

What is the definition of asphyxia?
ANSWER:

What is the medical cause of a heart attack?
ANSWER:

What symptoms could indicate a skull fracture rather than a concussion? Select the TWO correct answers.
ANSWER:

What type of shock is caused by a loss of blood volume?
ANSWER:

When would we suspect that the cause of unconsciousness is more serious than a faint?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements best describes a concussion?
ANSWER:

Why is it important to monitor a casualty witha minor head injury?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0524 – Elementary first aid, Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

At what rate should we perform chest compressions?
ANSWER:

How many chest compressions should be done in each cycle of CPR?
ANSWER:

How many rescue breaths should we do in each cycle of CPR?
ANSWER:

If a casualty is either very large or very small, what depth should we compress the chest to?
ANSWER:

If the casualty is a child or has been pulled from the water, what should you do before starting chest compressions?
ANSWER:

If the casualty vomits what should you do?
ANSWER:

If the rescue breaths are unsuccessful, how many extra breaths should be given?
ANSWER:

If there are 2 first aiders present how many cycles of CPR should you do before swapping?
ANSWER:

In what circumstances should we use CPR?
ANSWER:

What depth should the chest be compressed to?
ANSWER:

What does it usually mean if the casualty starts to make gurgling noises?
ANSWER:

What is the difference between a heart attack and a cardiac arrest?
ANSWER:

What is the purpose of doing chest compressions?
ANSWER:

When a casualty suffers a cardiac arrest, we should check for normal breathing. What is very slow noisy breathing called?
ANSWER:

When starting chest compressions, what position should the hands be in?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements best describes the symptoms of a heart attack?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements is false?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0525 – Elementary first aid, Automated external defibrillator

How long do you perform CPR for between each cycle of analysis from the AED?

ANSWER:

If you find an unresponsive non breathing casualty when should you start CPR?
ANSWER:

In which of the following areas is it safe to use an AED? Select the TWO correct answers.
ANSWER:

Is it safe to use an AED on a casualty with an implanted device such as a pacemaker?
ANSWER:

The effectiveness of an AED decreases by what percentage per minute delay?
ANSWER:

What chance of survival does a casualty have if the AED is attached within 1 minute of cardiac arrest?
ANSWER:

What do we use AVPU to check for in a casualty?
ANSWER:

What does the abbreviation AED stand for?
ANSWER:

What is the function of an AED?
ANSWER:

When performing a primary survey on discovery of a casualty, what does the abbreviation ABC stand for?
ANSWER:

When using an AED why is it important to remove clothing and shave the chest? Select the THREE correct answers.
ANSWER:

Where should you position the pads on the casualty’s body?
ANSWER:

Who can use an AED if necessary?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0526 – Elementary first aid, Bleeding and bandaging

A bruise is a more common name for what type of wound?
ANSWER:

How can you determine if an artery has been damaged?
ANSWER:

How do you dress a wound with an embedded object?
ANSWER:

How should metal equipment be sterilised before use?
ANSWER:

If you have a wound with an embedded object what must you NOT do? Select the TWO correct answers.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? “When dealing with an amputated limb, you should place the limb directly onto ice.”
ANSWER:

What can cause a laceration?
ANSWER:

What type of wound is likely to bleed more heavily than a laceration?
ANSWER:

When applying a bandage, it is best to use what type of knot to fasten the bandage?
ANSWER:

When dealing with a bleeding injury, what does the abbreviation PPE stand for?
ANSWER:

When dressing a wound how many bandages can be applied if blood seeps through before re-examining the wound?
ANSWER:

Where should you position the knot when tying a bandage?
ANSWER:

Why is Personal Protective Equipment important when dealing with a bleeding injury?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0527 – Elementary first aid, Burns

For which of the following injuries should a support sling be used?
ANSWER:

For which of the following injuries would an elevation sling be used?
ANSWER:

How should a dislocation be supported?
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘A pelvic fracture can cause severe internal bleeding as there is a risk of damage to major blood vessels.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘If a casualty has an open fracture with bleeding, we should elevate the injury.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘If a casualty has dislocated a limb, we should quickly manipulate the joint back into position.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘If we suspect a spinal injury, we should move the casualty as quickly as possible.’.
ANSWER:

What is a dislocation?
ANSWER:

What is a stable fracture?
ANSWER:

What is an unstable fracture?
ANSWER:

When is a fracture classified as an open fracture?
ANSWER:

Which of the following are signs a fracture may have occurred? Select as many answers as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

Which of the following is NOT a sign of impaired blood circulation?
ANSWER:

Which of the options correctly completes the following sentence? ‘If there is no pulse present, we should attempt to restore circulation by…’
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0531 – Elementary first aid, Spinal injuries

How many vertebrae make up the spinal column?
ANSWER:

If a helicopter evacuation is necessary, which of the following is NOT part of the process if a helicopter evacuation is necessary?
ANSWER:

If the spinal cord is damaged, what could be the result?
ANSWER:

What do we use to immobilise the body?
ANSWER:

What information should be written on a morphine tag?
ANSWER:

What process do we use to get the casualty onto the stretcher?
ANSWER:

What should go with the casualty if they are evacuated by helicopter? Select as many answers as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

What type of movement does a neck collar NOT prevent?
ANSWER:

When carrying out a log roll and blanket lift, why is it important that everyone moves at the same time?
ANSWER:

Who gives instruction during the immobilisation and lifting process?
ANSWER:

Why is it important to carry out the immobilisation procedure with minimal movement to the casualty?
ANSWER:

Why is it important to place padding between the legs and arms?
ANSWER:

Why is it important to plan your route before moving the casualty? Select as many answers as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

Why is it important to use a morphine tag if the casualty has been given morphine?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0532 – Elementary first aid, Electric shock

How can an electric shock occur? Select as many answers as you think are correct.
ANSWER:

How can you insulate yourself when working with electricity?
ANSWER:

How do we check for a pain response?
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? “An electric shock can occur when a current is passed through the body”.
ANSWER:

Is there a risk to the first aider on discovering a victim of electric shock?
ANSWER:

Major internal injuries can occur with electric shock, but which organ will display immediate symptoms?
ANSWER:

The presence of what can make an electric shock worse?
ANSWER:

What do we use AVPU to check for?
ANSWER:

What does AVPU stand for?
ANSWER:

What is the first thing you must do when you find a casualty who has had an electric shock?
ANSWER:

When should CPR be performed on a casualty who has suffered an electric shock?
ANSWER:

When using the acronym DRsAB, what does the A stand for?
ANSWER:

When would you place a casualty in the recovery position?
ANSWER:

Why is it important to check if the casualty is breathing before treating any other injuries?
ANSWER:

Why would you place a casualty in the recovery position?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 00019 – Remote Ctrl. Sys. (AC4)

An order printer unit is fitted at
ANSWER:

AutoChief 4 is the fourth generation of remote control system for
ANSWER:

Digital Governor Unit receives speed command through
ANSWER:

During Bridge Control Manoeuvring the Starting and Stopping of Main Engine is done with the help of
ANSWER:

During normal operation from Bridge the Main Engine can be stopped by……………
ANSWER:

Engine Room Panel is subdivided into how many fields?
ANSWER:

From where does Autochief 4 takes RPM command information?
ANSWER:

How does the bridge unit transfer command to ECR unit?
ANSWER:

How many pick-ups are fitted for detection of RPM?
ANSWER:

If you are maneuvering from Engine Control Room, will the telegraph order be recorded at the Bridge OPU?
ANSWER:

In AC4 remote control system; manoeuvering of ME can be carried out from
ANSWER:

Indication Field contains __________ indication lamp.
ANSWER:

Name the field that contains “Rough Sea Mode” function?
ANSWER:

Pneumatic Valve Cabinet controls
ANSWER:

Slow turning Diode will be illuminated when Engine has been stopped for …………….
ANSWER:

Start Air Transducer detects
ANSWER:

System Warning & System Fail indication will be activated when ………..
ANSWER:

The bridge panel is subdivided into how many fields?
ANSWER:

The fuel rack of the engine is regulated by
ANSWER:

The function of Engine Control Room Telegraph is to
ANSWER:

The main purpose of telegraph lever is
ANSWER:

The pick-up for measuring RPM is located ………..
ANSWER:

The reversing of Main Engine is done through a set of ………….
ANSWER:

The speed set lever controls
ANSWER:

What are the functions of “Cancel” buttons?
ANSWER:

What component is installed at all three locations in AC4 remote control unit?
ANSWER:

What is this?
ANSWER:

Which one is not a part of Safety System Unit?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statement are true?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0059 – DGPS

Are the GPS satellites fitted with any accurate clocks?
ANSWER:

GLONASS is an alternative to what system?
ANSWER:

Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) provides three services known collectively as PNT, what are they?
ANSWER:

How can the adverse effects of the ionosphere and troposphere be minimized?
ANSWER:

How does the Differential GPS, improve the accuracy of the output position
ANSWER:

How does the Navstar GPS receiver finds a position using the calculated distances from satellites?
ANSWER:

In the Navstar GPS system there are normally 24 active satellites, how many different carrier frequencies are used for transmissions by all of the GPS satellites?
ANSWER:

In the Navstar GPS system, satellites orbit the earth at an altitude of approximately what distance?
ANSWER:

In the Navstar GPS system, satellites orbit the earth in approximately?
ANSWER:

It is commonly recognised that the Navstar GPS system consists of three main segments, what are these segments?
ANSWER:

It is recognized that Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) transmit signals that can be used to provide three different services, what are these?
ANSWER:

The Navstar GPs provides two levels of service, what are they?
ANSWER:

What action should be taken by the Officer of the Watch when the Navstar GPS receiver is set to provide an output position of latitude and longitude using the datum of WGS 84, which is different to the datum on the paper chart?
ANSWER:

What are the dangers of the Officer of the Watch being totally reliant on the Navstar GPS?
ANSWER:

What datum is used by the HO approved vector charts, as used by the Navstar GPS system?
ANSWER:

What geographical factors can affect the accuracy of the Differential GPS produced position?
ANSWER:

What is a “Multipath Error” when related to GNSS?
ANSWER:

What is meant by the abbreviation RAIM?
ANSWER:

What is the affects of selective availability being switched off?
ANSWER:

What is the approximate strength of the GPS transmitted signal?
ANSWER:

What is the difference between the speed of a radio signal and the speed of light?
ANSWER:

What is the nearest approximation of the shape of the earth?
ANSWER:

What is the pseudo-random code with reference to The Navstar GPS?
ANSWER:

What is the reason for “clock error” with reference to the Navstar GPS system?
ANSWER:

What is understood by the abbreviation: – WAAS?
ANSWER:

What is “Jamming” when referred to GNSS?
ANSWER:

What output figure of HDOP indicates good accuracy?
ANSWER:

What types of Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) receivers are used at sea for navigational purposes
ANSWER:

When a Navstar GPS receiver loses the satellite signals, it reverts to what mode of operation?
ANSWER:

When considering GPS what is the main function of RAIM?
ANSWER:

When considering GPS, a 3D position has three unknown parameters; latitude, longitude and altitude. Why are signals from four satellites required to find an accurate 3D position?
ANSWER:

When considering GPS, how does the elevation mask angle influence the number of available satellites for position fixing?
ANSWER:

When considering GPS, what is the result of receiving multipath signals?
ANSWER:

When considering Navstar GPS receiver, what is the minimum number of satellites that must be available to calculate a 3 Dimensional (Latitude, Longitude and Altitude) position?
ANSWER:

When considering Navstar GPS, what is the meaning of pseudo-range?
ANSWER:

When considering Navstar GPS, what is the name of the common error affecting the orbital satellite position information?
ANSWER:

When considering Navstar GPS, what is the safest operating mode to select?
ANSWER:

When considering Navstar GPS, which DOP is most important for a maritime user when checking GPS accuracy?
ANSWER:

When considering Navstar GPS, which coordinate system (datum) is recommended to be used at all times?
ANSWER:

When considering a Navstar GPS receiver the output course and speed provided by the receiver provides what information?
ANSWER:

When considering a Navstar GPS receiver, what control should be operated when a member of the crew falls over the side of the ship?
ANSWER:

When considering a Navstar GPS receiver, what is the minimum number of satellites that must be available to calculate a 2 Dimensional (latitude and Longitude) position?
ANSWER:

When considering a basic GPS, which of the following statements is true?.
ANSWER:

Why are the calculated ranges known as “pseudo-ranges”?
ANSWER:

Why is it considered dangerous to totally rely on the Navstar GPS for obtaining positions?
ANSWER:

With reference the Navstar GPS outputs, what does a low HDOP figure indicate?
ANSWER:

With reference to Navstar GPS system used in conjunction with a Differential Reference Station, on what is the accuracy of the resultant position mainly dependant?
ANSWER:

With reference to Navstar GPS system, what happens to the GPS radio signal speed when it passes through the ionosphere?
ANSWER:

With reference to Navstar GPS, how many ground based control stations are used to monitor the satellites
ANSWER:

With reference to Navstar GPS, why is the initial calculated range of the satellite call “pseudo-range”?
ANSWER:

With reference to a standard ship’s Navstar GPS receiver, how would the probable accuracy of the output position be indicated
ANSWER:

With reference to the Navstar GPS system, how are the inaccuracies of position due to “ clock error” removed?
ANSWER:

With reference to the Navstar GPS system, which statement is true?
ANSWER:

With reference to the Navstar GPS, what are the effects on the ship’s position resulting from an incident of “spoofing”
ANSWER:

With reference to the Navstar GPS, what is the result of the height of the GPS antennae being incorrectly entered into the GPS receiver
ANSWER:

With reference to the Navstar GPS, what is the significance of the “pseudo-random code” of the satellite transmissions
ANSWER:

With reference to the Navstar GPS, what is “selective availability” and does it affect the GPS position accuracy at this time (2011)
ANSWER:

With the Navstar GPS system, how many monitoring stations are there?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0109 – AIS – Automatic Identification System

Can AIS with MKD operate as a standalone system?
ANSWER:

How is the AIS technical status checked?
ANSWER:

How is the voyage related information updated?
ANSWER:

How much can the AIS broadcast mode be overloaded without any significant operational effect?
ANSWER:

How often is the static information updated?
ANSWER:

In case of AIS overload, what can you expect?
ANSWER:

Seen from an operational point of view, how will you describe the AIS?
ANSWER:

The AIS transmitted information is divided into three main groups, which?
ANSWER:

The AIS transponder is designed to transmit information?
ANSWER:

The dynamic information update rate depends on?
ANSWER:

The lost target symbol is shown where?
ANSWER:

The selected target symbol represents?
ANSWER:

What are the criteria for a dangerous target in AIS?
ANSWER:

What can happen in case of AIS overload?
ANSWER:

What happens when an AIS sensor fails?
ANSWER:

What is important to remember when using AIS for collision avoidance?
ANSWER:

What is the IMO minimum display requirement for AIS?
ANSWER:

What is the accuracy of the AlS information?
ANSWER:

What is the required minimum ship reporting capacity for AlS according to IMO performance standards?
ANSWER:

What kind of system is AIS?
ANSWER:

When is static information entered into the AlS?
ANSWER:

When should the AIS transponder normally be activated?
ANSWER:

When using AIS the OOW should be aware of?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is defined as dynamic information?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is defined as static information?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0155 – Stowaways, Migrants and Refugees

A group of stowaways is discovered in a container on board. There are three males and one female. There are no other females on board. What is the recommended policy on searching the female stowaway?
ANSWER:

A regular cargo ship is to pick up a group of 16 refugees, who have been adrift in a small boat in the South China Sea. It will be some time before the ship reaches her next port. Which of the following resources may be seriously impacted by their presence on board?
ANSWER:

A ship arrives in port. There are concerns about stowaway activity in the area. How should the master regard the level of security risk that has been declared by the port authority?
ANSWER:

A stowaway has been discovered on board. Who is responsible for the proper and accurate reporting of the relevant details to the authorities, the owner, charterer and other interested parties?
ANSWER:

A stowaway is discovered on board. He is very sick when found. What practical steps may be taken by master to safeguard the health and safety of others on board? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

A stowaway is discovered on board. The vessel is at sea, on passage and in international waters. What legal rights does the stowaway have?
ANSWER:

According to industry representatives, what is the estimated cost of stowaways to the shipping industry and their P&I Clubs?
ANSWER:

According to the estimates quoted in this program, what is the cost of stowaways to the shipping industry and their P&I Clubs?
ANSWER:

Amendments to which IMO Convention first made proposals related to crew and passenger lists and specific recommendations concerning the administration and handling of stowaways?
ANSWER:

As part of gangway security, a record of persons coming on board should be maintained. Why will this prove of value as the ship prepares to leave?
ANSWER:

As part of the preparations for entering port, storage lockers, machinery rooms, deckhouses, accesses to cargo holds, pumprooms not in use and any other areas which do not need to be open for the purposes of cargo handling or safety should be locked or sealed. What precaution should be taken before this is done?
ANSWER:

Assuming no claim is being made for asylum, what will immigration authorities invariably consider necessary before permitting disembarkation of a stowaway?
ANSWER:

Countries that are signatories to the 1979 IMO International Convention on Maritime Search and Rescue are required to ensure that assistance is provided to any person in distress at sea. Which of the following is a correct statement in this respect?
ANSWER:

Do incidents involving stowaways, migrants and refugees at sea cost the ship owner money?
ANSWER:

Does a stowaway, if discovered in international waters, have any rights?
ANSWER:

Does the master have the legal right to force a stowaway to work?
ANSWER:

Does the master have the legal right to require a stowaway to work? (Select the most correct answer).
ANSWER:

For which of the following can a ship be fined? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

For which of the following can a ship be fined? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

How should the master of a vessel regard the level of security in a port at which his vessel calls?
ANSWER:

If a person is discovered hiding in a lifeboat during the vessel’s pre-departure search, how will he normally be considered within the law?
ANSWER:

If a person manages to gain access to a ship in port and conceal himself, but is discovered during a search prior to the vessel’s departure, what legal status will normally be applied to him?
ANSWER:

If a stowaway will not cooperate and give his identity, how might the master establish it?
ANSWER:

If it is suspected that a stowaway may be carrying an infection, what practical steps may be taken by master to safeguard the health and safety of others on board? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

If practicable, how should a claim for asylum be made?
ANSWER:

In addition to fines for having a stowaway on board, or for allowing a stowaway to escape, for which of the following costs may the ship owner or operator find themselves liable? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

In addition to the routine preparations that would be made for recovering persons from the sea, which of the following factors may be amongst those considered by the master when approaching a boat containing refugees in the open sea?
ANSWER:

In addition to verifying that all appropriate spaces are locked, what additional purpose is served by patrols?
ANSWER:

In general, which of the following situations will result in a higher fine for a vessel and her operators?
ANSWER:

In general, which of the following will result in higher costs?
ANSWER:

In legal terms, there is a significant difference between “stowaways” and “migrants and refugees” that are rescued at sea. What is that difference?
ANSWER:

Is a person picked up by a ship at sea automatically given official refugee status?
ANSWER:

Is it recommended by the IMO “Guidelines on the allocation of responsibilities to seek the successful resolution of stowaway cases” that a ship’s master, having discovered stowaways on board his ship at sea, should divert from his planned voyage to disembark them? (Select the most correct answer)
ANSWER:

Security patrols will check that all appropriate spaces are locked. What additional purpose do they serve?
ANSWER:

Specialist equipment for detecting concealed persons may work by measuring which of the following? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

The FAL Convention established a definition for an “attempted stowaway”. What critical condition in this definition distinguishes it from the definition for a “stowaway”?
ANSWER:

The charterer may be liable for some or all of the costs associated with stowaways. Under what circumstances could this be the case?
ANSWER:

The master has been presented with papers to sign relating to stowaways he had on board on arrival in port and is uncertain as to their significance. What should he do?
ANSWER:

The ship is approaching a small boat, which is believed to contain a group of refugees, with a view to rescuing them and bringing them on board. What must, at all times, be the main priority of the master?
ANSWER:

Under what circumstances may the charterer be liable for some or all of the costs associated with stowaways?
ANSWER:

What action is a master, who is in receipt of information that persons are in distress and is in a position to be able to provide assistance, required to take?
ANSWER:

What is the essential difference between the administration of political asylum and modern refugee law?
ANSWER:

What is the essential difference between the way in which those seeking asylum and those considered as refugees will be handled by the immigration authorities?
ANSWER:

What is the name applied to the process of returning a person to his country of origin called?
ANSWER:

What is the recommended policy on searching a female stowaway, if no other females are present on board?
ANSWER:

What is the significant legal difference between migrants and refugees that are rescued at sea and stowaways that are found on board?
ANSWER:

What practical measures can be taken to prevent persons boarding illegally and stowing away? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

What significant impact did the introduction of the ISPS Code have on statistics on stowaway activity since 2004?
ANSWER:

Whenever a stowaway is discovered on board, who is responsible for the proper and accurate reporting of the relevant details to the authorities, the owner, charterer and other interested parties?
ANSWER:

Which Code, implemented in 2004, made it more difficult for potential stowaways to gain access to a vessel in port?
ANSWER:

Which convention, associated with the streamlining of paperwork for the international maritime trade, gave a detailed, legal interpretation to the term “Stowaway”?
ANSWER:

Which maritime code is believed to have led to a reduction in the number of stowaways in many areas recent years?
ANSWER:

Which of the following are common categories of stowaway that may be encountered at sea, as listed in this module? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Which of the following are recommended actions for the master who discovers a stowaway on his ship when at sea, as contained in the IMO “Guidelines on the allocation of responsibilities to seek the successful resolution of stowaway cases”? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Which of the following areas, as listed in this module, have been recognized for large-scale sea-borne migrant and refugee activity in the last half-century?
ANSWER:

Which of the following does the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea require the master of a ship to do?
ANSWER:

Which of the following have a responsibility in one way or another to cooperate in preventing illegal access to a vessel in port? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Which of the following have a responsibility towards refugees and migrants rescued at sea? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Which of the following is a correct statement?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is a principle, defined in the 1979 IMO International Convention on Maritime Search and Rescue that must be applied to the rescue of persons in distress at sea?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is a requirement on the master of a seagoing vessel under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the correct definition of a “displaced person” as recorded in this module?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the correct definition of a “displaced person” as recorded in this module?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the definition of a “place of safety” by the IMO Guidelines on the Treatment of Persons Rescued at Sea?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the definition of an “asylum seeker” as described in this program?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the definition of an “attempted stowaway”, as described by the FAL Convention?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the definition of an “economic migrant” as described in this program?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the definition of the term “place of safety” in the IMO Guidelines on the Treatment of Persons Rescued at Sea?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the definition of “asylum seekers” as recorded in this chapter?
ANSWER:

Which of the following maritime codes is generally believed to have led to a reduction in the number of stowaways in many areas recent years?
ANSWER:

Which of the following may be among those conditions from which persons rescued at sea may typically be suffering?
ANSWER:

Which of the following may be among those factors taken into account when planning the rescue of persons in distress at sea? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Which of the following may be seriously impacted by having a large group of refugees on board a regular merchant vessel?
ANSWER:

Which of the following practical measures can be implemented to counter stowaways? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Which of the following sea areas, as listed in this module, has recorded large-scale, sea-borne migrant and refugee activity since 1990? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

Who in the United Nations organization would have an interest in the large-scale movement of migrants and refugees in a particular sea area?
ANSWER:

Why is it advisable to detain the stowaway in secure quarters? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Why should a record of persons coming on board be maintained by the ship’s staff?
ANSWER:

Why should a ship’s master not make a stowaway work? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

Why should a stowaway be detained in secure quarters on board? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

You are at sea and discover a stowaway on board. The man has no documents or other proof of identity. How is it likely that the immigration authorities will consider him when your ship arrives in port?
ANSWER:

You are conducting a pre-departure stowaway search. How should you proceed if you discover someone concealed in the paint locker?
ANSWER:

You are conducting a pre-departure stowaway search. You find three men hiding in the rope locker? What do you do?
ANSWER:

You arrive in port with a stowaway on board. He is not making any claim for asylum. Before they consider permitting disembarkation, what will immigration authorities invariably demand the stowaway produces?
ANSWER:

You discover three male stowaways on board. They are young, in good health and willing to work. The ship is on her last passage before entering dry-dock and there is a lot of preparation work in progress. Why should the master not put the stowaways to work? (Select all applicable answers).
ANSWER:

You have departed Dar Es Salaam in East Africa and are bound for a European discharge port. You discover a stowaway on board. Should he be forced into making a claim for asylum?
ANSWER:

You have departed a port in South America and are bound for the United States. You discover a stowaway on board. Should he be forced into making a claim for political asylum?
ANSWER:

Your ship arrives in a foreign port with a stowaway on board, who has no documents. How is it likely he will be considered by the authorities?
ANSWER:

Your ship is approaching port. You are assigned to secure all storage lockers, machinery rooms, deckhouses and pumprooms not required to be open for cargo handling or for safety reasons. What should you do before sealing each door?
ANSWER:

“The master of a ship at sea which is in a position to be able to provide assistance, on receiving information from any source that persons are in distress at sea, is bound to proceed with all speed to their assistance, if possible informing them or the search and rescue services that the ship is doing so.” Is this a correct statement?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0179 – Marine Fuel Properties II

A value for fuel density is required for a number of operational reasons. Select all of the operations for which a density value for the fuel is required from the options given.
ANSWER:

A value for fuel viscosity is required for a number of operational reasons. Select all of the operations for which a viscosity value for the fuel is required from the options given.
ANSWER:

According to this module, what is the most likely cause of marine pollution by fuel oil?
ANSWER:

Air pollution from the use of marine fuels, particularly in diesel engines, is an ongoing problem. Select, from the options given, all of those which contribute directly to air pollution.
ANSWER:

Although an energy equivalent indicator is not included within the ISO 8217 fuel standard tables it is still an important indication of a fuels quality. Which of the following range of energy levels is most representative of marine fuels?
ANSWER:

Although the stability of a fuel is important the ISO 8217 standard tables do not include any absolute stability indicators. Which of the following statements gives the best description of a stable fuel?
ANSWER:

Aluminium and silicon may be present in the fuel. What is the most likely source of these contaminants?
ANSWER:

Asphaltenes are complex, unsaturated hydrocarbon molecules contained in residual fuels. Select any of the likely problems from the following options which may result from fuels with high asphaltene content.
ANSWER:

Complete the following statement. Marine diesel fuel usually consists of …
ANSWER:

During combustion of fuel oil in a diesel engine there are a number of pollutants that may be present in the exhaust emissions. From the options given select all of those which constitute air pollutants.
ANSWER:

Each residual fuel grade is designated by a code consisting of three letters and a number. An example of this is the grade RMG 380. What does the number signify?
ANSWER:

From the following processes select all of those which are used in the refining of petroleum oil.
ANSWER:

From the options given select those which can be used to effectively remove water from fuel oil.
ANSWER:

If a person swallows a quantity of fuel which of the following actions should be taken?
ANSWER:

In oil refining the term ‘cracking’ is applied to a process based on which one of the following?
ANSWER:

Information regarding the health hazards associated with different materials, including marine fuels, should be obtained before handling and working with the materials. Where would be the most likely source of this information?
ANSWER:

Limits for Micro Carbon Residue, MCR, are included in both of the ISO 8217 fuel tables. Which of the following is the best description of the effect of a high value of MCR?
ANSWER:

Marine residual fuel oil is classed as a distillate fuel. True or False?
ANSWER:

Operating a diesel engine on fuel oil containing used lubricating oil may result in engine damage due to high levels of debris or remaining additives it may contain. Which of the following options is recognised as an indication of used lubricating oil being present in fuel?
ANSWER:

Prior to entering a fuel tank the atmosphere should have which of the following concentrations?
ANSWER:

Select all of the options which are likely to occur in a marine diesel engine due to contamination of the fuel.
ANSWER:

Select all of the options which may result in a risk of a health hazard when dealing with fuel oils and fuel related equipment?
ANSWER:

Select from the options given all of those which apply to the four compounds methane, ethane, propane and butane.
ANSWER:

Select the best option to complete the following statement: To remove as much catalytic fines as possible from residual fuel you should …?
ANSWER:

Select, from the options given, all of the possible effects of using fuel with a high sulphur content.
ANSWER:

Soluble contaminants such as vanadium may be present in residual fuel. What can be done to remove such contaminants from the fuel prior to onboard use? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

The acronym SECA stands for which one of the following options?
ANSWER:

The ash content of a fuel is limited according to the ISO 8217 fuel tables. Which one of the following is the highest risk when operating an engine on fuel with a high ash content?
ANSWER:

The best way to remove residual fuel oil from the skin is to wash with clean distillate fuel. True or False?
ANSWER:

The cetane number is a reliable ignition quality indicator for all marine fuels. True or false?
ANSWER:

The compatibility of one fuel with another cannot be measured directly and may lead to an unstable mixture. To avoid compatibility problems, which of the following options is recommended?
ANSWER:

The contaminants normally found in marine fuel oil usually originate from which of the following? Select all of the likely sources from the options given.
ANSWER:

The flash point indicates which of the following?
ANSWER:

The limit for the NOx content in a diesel engine exhaust depends on which of the following parameters?
ANSWER:

The tables in ISO 8217 cover all of the quality aspects relating to marine fuels. True or False?
ANSWER:

The two tables in the current edition of the ISO Standard for marine fuels both contain which of the following indicators?
ANSWER:

Total sediment (potential) is a measure of which of the following?
ANSWER:

Vanadium can be removed from residual marine fuel by filtration. True or False?
ANSWER:

What does the term ‘saturated’ mean when used to describe hydrocarbon molecules?
ANSWER:

What is the ratio of hydrogen atoms to carbon atoms in the naphthene or cyclo-alkane series of hydrocarbons?
ANSWER:

When a fuel is described as being incompatible it means that it cannot be mixed with another fuel and remain stable. True or False?
ANSWER:

When testing diesel engine fuel injectors care must be taken to avoid direct skin contact with the high pressure fuel spray. From the options given select the ONE most likely effect on health that may result from this particular hazard.
ANSWER:

Which of the following are the parameters used to calculate the CCAI value of a fuel.
ANSWER:

Which of the following best describes the aromatic group of hydrocarbons?
ANSWER:

Which of the following can be used to check that the fuel delivered exactly meets the specification of the fuel ordered?
ANSWER:

Which of the following carries a high risk of aspiration of fuel oil?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is one of the ways that MARPOL aims to limit CO₂emissions from ships?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the MARPOL annex dealing with air pollution?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the MARPOL annex dealing with marine pollution by oil?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the best description of the alkane or paraffinic group of hydrocarbon compounds?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Lubricity?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the normal gross calorific value of marine residual fuel?
ANSWER:

Which of the following non-hydrocarbon elements found in marine residual fuels is the most likely to originate from part of the refining process?
ANSWER:

Which of the following options is the best description of marine diesel oil?
ANSWER:

Which of the following outcomes is the most likely as a result of combustion of fuel containing sulphur?
ANSWER:

Which of the following processes allows the chemical energy in fuel oil to be converted into mechanical work?
ANSWER:

Which of the following quality indicators is included in the ISO 8217 tables?
ANSWER:

Which of the following statements is the most accurate with reference to the term ‘combustion quality’?
ANSWER:

Which of the following temperature limits is included in the ISO 8217 standard because of safety reasons?
ANSWER:

Which of the following temperature ranges is the most likely to be employed for preheating the crude oil for the atmospheric distillation process.
ANSWER:

Which one of the following chemical elements is the most likely to increase the risk of high temperature corrosion when present with vanadium during combustion of fuel oil?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options is most likely to contaminate fuel oil during the refining process?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options is the best way to minimise the sodium levels in fuel and so minimise the risk of hot corrosion?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0192 – MLC 2006 Onboard Responsibilities

A renewal inspection must be carried out prior to expiry of a Maritime Labour Certificate. Which of the given options is responsible for carrying out the renewal inspection?
ANSWER:

According to Regulation 2.3 of the MLC 2006, what is the maximum number of hours that a seafarer can work in a 24 hour period under normal circumstances?
ANSWER:

As part of the certification requirements for those vessels flying the flag of a Member State that has ratified the Convention a DMLC is required. What is a DMLC?
ANSWER:

From the options given select the one which identifies the types of vessel for which certification is mandatory under the MLC 2006.
ANSWER:

How are existing ships affected by the accommodation requirements of the Maritime Labour Convention 2006.
ANSWER:

How many areas of inspection are identified as mandatory for the purpose of MLC 2006 certification?
ANSWER:

In order to ensure that MLC 2006 port State inspections are fair and consistent there are a set of guidelines which should be followed by inspectors. Which organisation has adopted and approved these guidelines?
ANSWER:

It is intended that all port State control inspections under the Maritime Labour Convention 2006 will be consistent and fair. Which of the options given is the main action that has been taken to try and ensure that this is achieved?
ANSWER:

Onboard medical care for seafarers is covered by Regulation 4.1 of the Convention. The regulation stipulates the conditions under which a medically qualified doctor must be carried onboard. Which of the given options would require such provision?
ANSWER:

Once the MLC 2006 enters into force, which of the given options will have the practical responsibility for maintaining ongoing compliance onboard a vessel?
ANSWER:

Regulation 3.1 of the Convention deals with accommodation and recreational facilities. To which vessels do the accommodation requirements directly apply?
ANSWER:

Regulation 3.2 of the Convention deals with food and catering requirements. Which of the following statements is one of the requirements of this regulation?
ANSWER:

Regulation 4.1 of the Convention deals with onboard medical care requirements. During a detailed inspection of a vessel by port State control which of the options best describes the evidence that the Master would be expected to provide to demonstrate compliance with the requirements for the medical chest?
ANSWER:

Regulation 5.1.5 of the Convention deals with the requirements for arrangements to deal with seafarers onboard complaints. Which of the statements given in the options is true?
ANSWER:

Select from the given options the statement that is the most accurate relating to the evidence requirements for demonstrating ongoing compliance with the MLC 2006.
ANSWER:

Select from the given options those vessels which will be subject to port State control inspections under the MLC 2006.
ANSWER:

Suggested evidence sources to show compliance with the requirements of the Convention are given in the ILO guidelines for flag and port state control inspectors. Which of the given options is true with regard to evidence of compliance?
ANSWER:

The Maritime Labour Certificate can only remain valid for the full period on the condition that an interim inspection is carried out by flag State. During which part of the validity period must this be completed if only one interim inspection is carried out?
ANSWER:

The arrangements for payment of seafarers’ wages are dealt with under Regulation 2.2 of the Convention. What arrangements, if any, are required regarding allotments under this regulation?
ANSWER:

The majority of the evidence required to show that the seafarers working onboard are suitable is likely to be detailed in existing or suitably modified crew lists. What is the Masters responsibility regarding the details entered on the crew list?
ANSWER:

The requirements for manning levels onboard are dealt with by Regulation 2.7 of the Convention. What should be the main consideration for flag States when setting the manning level for a particular vessel?
ANSWER:

The start date of the period of validity of a Maritime Labour Certiificate issued following a renewal inspection depends on the relative timing of the inspection date and the expiry date of the original certificate. When is the most beneficial period for the renewal inspection to be carried out?
ANSWER:

There are certain conditions regarding the suitability of a person to serve as a ship’s cook and the Master must provide evidence that the requirements are being met. Select from the options the one which is correct?
ANSWER:

There have been a number of publications produced to try to ensure an acceptable level of consistency in monitoring compliance with the MLC 2006. Which publication is recommended for detailed inspections of foreign flag vessels?
ANSWER:

To which of the following groups of vessels will the MLC 2006 apply?
ANSWER:

Under the requirements of the MLC 2006 what is the main role of the competent authority or the recognised organisation appointed by them?
ANSWER:

Under what circumstances would the ship’s Master expect to receive written notification of any deficiencies discovered during a port State control inspection?
ANSWER:

What information would part 2 of the DMLC be expected to contain?
ANSWER:

What is the minimum age for a seafarer to work onboard a ship under Regulation 1.1 of the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

What is the normal validity of a Maritime Labour Certificate?
ANSWER:

What should the ship’s Master expect to happen if a port State control inspector discovers some minor deficiencies onboard during a detailed inspection under the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

When considering port State control inspection requirements, which of the options given would be considered as suitable evidence from a ship to demonstrate that the requirements relating to ‘suitable nutritional value and variety of meals’ was being met?
ANSWER:

When is the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006 due to enter into force?
ANSWER:

When would a ship’s Master expect the ship to be detained following an MLC 2006 port State control inspection?
ANSWER:

Which authority would normally carry out a ship inspection for initial compliance and MLC 2006 certification purposes?
ANSWER:

Which of the circumstances given in the options might result in an Interim Maritime Labour Certificate being issued?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is a requirement before a Maritime Labour Certificate can be issued?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is a requirement of Regulation 2.1 of the Convention which deals with seafarers’ employment agreements?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is likely to be necessary to show compliance with Regulation 2.2 which deals with the payment of seafarers’ wages when the payroll is handled directly by the shipping company office ashore?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is one of the main aims of the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the main requirement for ratification before entry into force of the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the required minimum number of hours of rest for a seafarer in any 24 hour period according to Regulation 2.3 of the Convention?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options should be accepted as prima facie evidence by port State control inspectors when inspecting vessels for compliance with the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options would be suitable evidence to show that a vessel is meeting the requirements of Regulation 2.3 of the Convention which deals with hours of work and hours of rest?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options would likely be accepted as primary evidence to present to port State control inspectors to show that the conditions contained in seafarers’ employment agreements are being met?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options would you consider to be most accurate in relation to deficiencies identified during an MLC 2006 detailed inspection?
ANSWER:

Which of the options given should result in a port State control inspector deciding that a detailed inspection under MLC 2006 was required onboard a vessel?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options best describes the Maritime Labour Convention, 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options is the most accurate in relation to port State control inspections under the MLC 2006?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options is true in relation to Regulation 1.2 of the MLC 2006 which deals with medical certification?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options is true in relation to Regulation 1.3 of the MLC 2006 which deals with seafarers qualifications?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options is true in relation to port State control inspections for MLC 2006 purposes?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options is true in relation to the hours of work for seafarers under the MLC 2006, Regulation 2.3?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options is true in respect of the MLC 2006 requirements relating to hours of work and hours of rest?
ANSWER:

Which of the statements given in the options relating to regulation 1.4, which deals with seafarer recruitment services, is true?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options is most likely to be the minimum evidence necessary to satisfy port State control inspectors that the requirements for dealing with onboard complaints, as detailed in Regulation 5.1.5, are being met?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options is often used to describe the MLC, 2006 in terms of the maritime regulatory framework?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options should be accepted as prima facie evidence of compliance with MLC 2006 by port State control inspectors?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options would be the most suitable primary evidence for the Master to provide to a port State control inspector to show that a vessel was in compliance with the onboard health and safety and accident prevention requirements detailed in Regulation 4.3 of the Convention?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options would part 1 of the DMLC be expected to contain?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0242 – Heavy Weather Navigation

IMO Resolution A.950(23) requires coastal states to provide a Maritime Assistance Service. Which one of the given options best describes the reason for this?
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘Optimum weather routing avoids bad weather systems altogether’.
ANSWER:

Select from the following options the reason why it is important to have adequate reserve stability on a vessel when approaching an area of heavy weather.
ANSWER:

Select from the given options the best reason why, in heavy weather, greater under keel clearance should be allowed on a passage in coastal waters.
ANSWER:

Select from the given options the most accurate definition of bulk cargo liquefaction.
ANSWER:

Select from the given options the one that best describes how land can be used to best navigational advantage whilst on a coastal passage in heavy weather.
ANSWER:

Select from the given options the one where information on heavy weather procedures would most likely be found on board a vessel.
ANSWER:

Select from the given options the statement that best describes a major consideration for ensuring that a vessel has adequate under keel clearance during a coastal passage in heavy weather.
ANSWER:

Select from the given options the statement that best describes the location in which anchors should be secured.
ANSWER:

Select from the given options the statement that best describes why heavy weather environmental forces are greater when a vessel sails from harbour.
ANSWER:

Select from the given options the type of information found in section B10 of the Bridge Procedures Guide.
ANSWER:

Select from the option which best completes the following statement. ‘After a prolonged period of heavy weather in a shallow sea area…
ANSWER:

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘If GMDSS equipment is logged into one Inmarsat satellite storm warnings broadcast from another satellite will…
ANSWER:

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘Information broadcast using NAVTEX is an example of…
ANSWER:

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘On a tanker save all drains should…
ANSWER:

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘The World Wide Navigation Warning Service offers storm warnings in…
ANSWER:

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘To ensure all personnel are safe during periods of extreme vessel motion…
ANSWER:

Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. ‘When navigating around the shores of Australia weather information is received via…
ANSWER:

Under SOLAS requirements which one of the given options best describes the action a vessel’s Master’s should take if they suspect a tropical storm is developing in the vessel’s vicinity?
ANSWER:

When a forecast of heavy weather is received who should be informed immediately?
ANSWER:

Which of the following options best completes the following statement? ‘A storm warning is broadcast when…
ANSWER:

Which of the given options best completes the following statement? ‘In a strong beam wind a vessel with a large wind area will sweep a path…
ANSWER:

Which of the given options best describes the actions to be taken on exposed decks before the onset of heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options best describes the main cause of bulk cargoes movement in a cargo space which has water tight integrity on a vessel that is at sea in heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options best describes the main precaution necessary with bulk cargoes on a vessel approaching heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options best describes the use of company procedures by the vessel’s officers?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options best describes what happens on a vessel, which has a lot of weight in the bow area, meeting waves head on?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options best describes why a vessel is more difficult to control in heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options can be considered the best immediate action on a vessel with a structural problem in heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options can be considered the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘A vessel has to suffer heavy weather effects on a voyage across an ocean’.
ANSWER:

Which of the given options correctly completes the following statement? ‘Before a vessel enters a safe haven a…
ANSWER:

Which of the given options correctly completes the following statement? ‘IMO resolution 949(23) could be useful to a vessel in heavy weather because…
ANSWER:

Which of the given options correctly describes the composition of environmental forces on a vessel?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options describes possible action that needs to be taken on board a vessel with a dragging anchor, in strong wind, to make it hold?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is correct for the number of NAVAREAs or METAREAS in the world?
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘A vessel with structural problems has an automatic right to go to any safe haven’.
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘As the engine room is lower down in the vessel, and is therefore less affected by the vessel’s motion, tools required for a work task can be left near the work area during heavy weather’.
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘If heavy weather conditions are expected the Master should have navigational contingency plans’.
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘In heavy weather the vessel’s navigation can have errors caused by…
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘The galley on a vessel is just another living space in heavy weather’.
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘When a vessel is weather routed all routing communications are from the service provider to the vessel only’.
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘With a heavy weather forecast the vessel should be checked for water tight integrity‘.
ANSWER:

Which of the given options is the most accurate in relation to the following statement? ‘With strong winds blowing in a port area delay sailing until they subside’.
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best completes the following statement? ‘A vessel lying to a single anchor in a strong wind will drag the anchor if…
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best completes the following statement? ‘The two types of weather routing are…
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best completes the following statement? ‘Voyage optimisation software uses…
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best completes the following statement? ‘Water ingress to void spaces on a vessel causes…
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best completes this statement? ‘In storm force winds the Master must…
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements best explains the meaning of term weather routing?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best completes the following statement? ‘Cargo lashings should…
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best completes the following statement? ‘Weight distribution on a vessel in large waves is important because…
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes an Emergency Response Service offered by a classification society?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes how a vessel in ballast is most likely to react when anchored in good holding ground when there is a strong wind blowing?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes how bow anchors on a vessel should be prepared for heavy weather conditions?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes one of the actions to be taken on the deck of a vessel before heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the action to be taken by the bridge team if the main engine is totally disabled in heavy weather with a close by lee shore?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the action to be taken by the bridge team if the main engine stops in heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the action to be taken by the engine room staff if the main steering system fails in heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the function of a commercial weather routing company?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the immediate action to be taken by the watch Engineer if the main engine stops in heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the operation of making fast a salvage tug to a vessel in open water in heavy weather conditions?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the risk factor of being on a vessel’s exposed main deck in heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes the vents on a vessel that should be closed before the onset of heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes vessel motion prediction software?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes what happens to a vessel with a very light bow area meeting waves head on?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best describes why water ingress forward can endanger a vessel?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options best explains how to use a salvage tug to help a vessel in heavy weather when the vessel has a disabled steering system but an operational main engine?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options can be considered correct for the meaning of the term ‘a wind driven current’?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options can be considered correct to complete the following statement? ‘In heavy weather only go on exposed decks if…
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options can be considered correct to complete the following statement? ‘When avoiding a tropical revolving storm the safe semicircle has the wind…
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options can be considered the best secondary action on a vessel with a structural problem in heavy weather?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options correctly completes the following statement? ‘Tugs working a vessel in heavy weather conditions…
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options correctly describes a meteorological related tidal storm surge?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options describes the main action that should be taken to control the effects of heavy weather on a vessel moving in a port area?
ANSWER:

Which one of the given options explains what should happen with the vessel’s mooring ropes before entering an area of heavy weather?
ANSWER:

‘When a tropical storm is in the path of a vessel the best action is to keep going and pass through it‘ Select the best option that comments on this statement.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0247 – Anchor Mooring Procedures

If an anchor in deep water seems to have bedded in, what is the best way to raise it?
ANSWER:

Once a vessel is brought up, what is the advantage of disengaging the bow chain-stopper and allowing the chain cable to be held by the brake?
ANSWER:

What are the two disadvantages of the Standing Moor over the Running Moor?
ANSWER:

What are the two principal risks that could lead to injury and damage, whilst executing the Mediterranean Moor? (Select two answers)
ANSWER:

What is the advantage of using 2 anchors to moor a vessel?
ANSWER:

What is the aim of letting go anchor from just above the seabed?
ANSWER:

What is the disadvantage of a Standing Moor over the Running Moor?
ANSWER:

What is the greatest risk associated with the Mediterranean Moor?
ANSWER:

What is the most common procedure used for anchoring in an emergency?
ANSWER:

What is the most significant risk of letting go anchor from just above the sea bed?
ANSWER:

What is the particular risk associated with letting go anchor from just above the seabed?
ANSWER:

What is the primary risk associated with walking out anchor all the way?
ANSWER:

What particular precaution must be taken with the Mediterranean Moor?
ANSWER:

What risk is associated with using two anchors to moor a vessel?
ANSWER:

What risk is particularly associated with letting go the anchor from the hawse pipe?
ANSWER:

What risks are associated with letting go anchor from the hawse pipe? (Select all applicable answers)
ANSWER:

What usually influences a ship when completing the first phase of a Standing Moor?
ANSWER:

When a vessel drags anchor, why is more cable veered?
ANSWER:

When anchoring, what is the major advantage of using a Standing Moor ?
ANSWER:

When are two anchors used to moor a vessel?
ANSWER:

When executing a running moor in calms or when wind and current are acting the same way, which anchor should be dropped first on a vessel with a right hand propeller?
ANSWER:

When executing the Mediterranean Moor with a light cross wind, from where should the first ropes be sent to mooring buoys and bollards?
ANSWER:

When executing the Mediterranean Moor, what should be the distance on the seabed between the first and second anchor?
ANSWER:

When executing the Mediterranean Moor, which anchor should be dropped first?
ANSWER:

When executing the Standing Moor in conditions where wind and current are running across each other, which anchor should be dropped first?
ANSWER:

When should an anchor be let go from the hawse pipe?
ANSWER:

When unmooring from the Mediterranean Moor, which stern ropes should be cast off first?
ANSWER:

When using two anchors, if one anchor starts dragging, how can this situation be corrected?
ANSWER:

Where is the Mediterranean Moor used?
ANSWER:

Which of the following is the main reason for letting go anchor from just above the sea bed?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options best describes what is meant by the scope of an anchor cable?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options would be the best speed over the ground when dropping anchor using the windlass brakes?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following options would be the best speed over the ground when walking the anchor out all the way?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following statements best describes when walking out anchor all the way is most likely to be used?
ANSWER:

Which three of the following are the main disadvantages of walking out anchor all the way?
ANSWER:

With regard to walking out anchor all the way, what is the particular risk with a fully laden tanker with bow over-hang?
ANSWER:

A structured shipboard training programme helps… Complete the statement by selecting TWO, most appropriate phrases.
ANSWER:

A third engineer is onboard a large new tanker. The vessel is well equipped with the latest technology and as such the third engineer is complacent due to the automation bias. What can the third engineer do to avoid the boredom that is beginning to set in? Select TWO most appropriate options.
ANSWER:

Automation bias leads to reduced level of situational awareness. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

Errors of commission occur when there is no response or action in situations where it is required. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

How can the company help reinforce the learning process and implement a training programme onboard ship? Select ONE most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

In management without leadership there is no direction for the team. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

Informal structures generally stem from… Complete the statement with the ONE, most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

Mentoring is more structured than coaching. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

Not wearing the correct or complete PPE is an error of omission. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

Select ONE, most appropriate option that defines SMART goals.
ANSWER:

The Company Training Officer or CTO is responsible for organising the practical training programme at sea. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

The deck officers and ratings report to the Chief Mate. State whether the statement is true is false.
ANSWER:

The fourth quadrant of the Johari window represents the area where your personal abilities are unknown to you and your team members. State whether the statement is true or false.
ANSWER:

The master is responsible for… Complete the statement by selecting the TWO, most appropriate phrases.
ANSWER:

The organisational chart illustrated in the Company’s Safety Management System (SMS) is a representation of… Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

The vessel is in port loading cargo. Company policy means that the chief mate cannot go ashore as he is responsible for loading the cargo. However, the master realises that the chief mate has had a busy few weeks. He therefore takes over cargo loading and sends the chief mate ashore. Which ONE of these is the most likely reason for the master’s action? Select the ONE, most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following is NOT a normal method of shipboard training?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following most appropriately defines an error chain?
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these most appropriately defines fatigue?
ANSWER:

Which THREE of the following factors are the most common reasons for fatigue?
ANSWER:

Which THREE of these are methods to assess shipboard training?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of the following are factors that are most likely to affect informal structures?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of these are considered as management focus areas?
ANSWER:

‘Active failures are…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘After a near miss has been observed…’ Complete the statement by selecting TWO, most appropriate phrases.
ANSWER:

‘Automation complacency leads to…’ Complete the statement by selecting ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘Automation complacency occurs when…’ Complete the statement by selecting the TWO, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘Designated leadership is…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘Examples of latent conditions are…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘In leadership with management…’ Complete the statement with the ONE, most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

‘Mentoring is…’ Complete the statement by selecting ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘SWOT analysis stands for…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:

‘The second quadrant of the Johari window represents…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate option.
ANSWER:

‘When there is leadership without management…’ Complete the statement by selecting the ONE, most appropriate phrase.
ANSWER:
A decision made in simple situations and based solely on personal experience, common sense or intuition is called ________.
ANSWER:

According to the STCW Manila Amendments, all of the following shipboard personnel are required to have the knowledge and ability to apply decision-making techniques EXCEPT __________.
ANSWER:

All of the following are conditions where the open and closed autocratic decision-making styles are applicable EXCEPT which option?
ANSWER:

All of the following are decision-making tools you can use to define the problem and set the goal EXCEPT which option?
ANSWER:

All of the following are forms of decision-making EXCEPT which option?
ANSWER:

In decision-making, the two options that are assessed to be the most workable are called _______.
ANSWER:

In the questioning techniques, what type of question should you use to encourage generous response?
ANSWER:

In this decision-making style, you have the absolute authority to make the decision based on what you currently know or aware of without consulting anybody.
ANSWER:

It is defined as the process of selecting the course or courses of action based on a generated list of options conceived upon careful assessment of the situation.
ANSWER:

SWOT Analysis is a decision-making tool that can be used for which step in the decision-making process?
ANSWER:

Seafarers should possess good decision-making skills because __________.
ANSWER:

The Advantages/disadvantages and CS2 techniques are decision-making tools for ________.
ANSWER:

The CS2 technique is a tool for assessing options by comparing their relative strengths based on all of the following issues EXCEPT which option?
ANSWER:

The Captain called for a meeting to discuss where to allocate the ship’s recreational fund. He facilitated the meeting and allowed the officers and crew to give their suggestions. After the discussions, all voted and the Captain followed the decision of the majority. What decision-making style did the Captain use in this scenario?
ANSWER:

The acronym SWOT stands for strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and _____.
ANSWER:

The decision-making process starts with ___________.
ANSWER:

The decision-making style of individual consultation is most suitable in which of the following situations?
ANSWER:

This decision-making tool is used to make a collective assessment involving different individuals without fear of being criticized, opposed or taken for granted.
ANSWER:

This step in the decision-making process deals with creating the correct picture of the situation.
ANSWER:

This step in the decision-making process is carried out by comparing the results of the decision with the goal defined in the first step.
ANSWER:

This type of options remains after eliminating those that do not appear to be realistic, practical or appropriate to the situation.
ANSWER:

What decision-making style do you use when you disclose your intention and ask other individuals for specific information or opinion?
ANSWER:

When are consultative and collaborative decision-making styles applicable?
ANSWER:

Which of the following options is an appropriate non-verbal skill for active listening?
ANSWER:

Without disclosing his intention, the Chief Mate asked the Chief Engineer about remaining onboard (ROB) quantities of fuel oil (FO) and diesel oil (DO) to compute the maximum loadable cargo. What decision-making style did the Chief Mate use?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0421 – Ballast water management, the BWM Convention

According to this module, what is the estimated amount of untreated ballast water discharged each year? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

According to this module, why does the United States Coastguard require ballast tanks to be cleaned regularly?
ANSWER:

Does the Ballast Water Management Convention apply to any vessel of any type operating in the aquatic environment, regardless of whether they carry ballast water or not?
ANSWER:

For how long must the ballast water record book be kept on board the ship? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

How long can some marine species survive in untreated ballast water?
ANSWER:

The BWM convention is divided into 22 articles and an annex. Which sections of the Annex are of particular importance to ships? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

What is the estimated number of species transported by ship ballast? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

When did the Ballast Water Management convention enter into force? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

When new and correctly fitted, they can stop all marine life passing through
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following best describes the’ Flow-through’ ballast exchange method? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following options best describes the aims of the Ballast Water Management Convention?
ANSWER:

Which TWO of the following best describe how invasive species may be carried by ships? Select the TWO best answers.
ANSWER:

Which ballast water exchange methods can cause extra stresses on the hull? Select the TWO best answers.
ANSWER:

Who needs to give the final approval for the ship’s Ballast Water Management plan?
ANSWER:

Why do sea chest grids and pump filters not prevent the spread of some marine life through ship’s ballasting operations?
ANSWER:

Why does a ship carry ballast? Select any answers that you think apply.
ANSWER:

Why have many of the natural barriers to the spread of species reduced? Select the TWO best answers.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0422 – Ballast water management, BWM systems

According to this module, which ballast water treatment system may affect ballast tank coatings and cause corrosion?
ANSWER:

For how long must the ballast water record book be kept on board the ship? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

How long must the ballast water record book be kept on board?
ANSWER:

Some ballast water treatment technologies are considered highly toxic, requiring monitoring of by-products in the discharged water. Which of the following does this apply to?
ANSWER:

Where must all ballast water operations be recorded? Select the ONE correct answer.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of the following best describes the’ Flow-through’ ballast exchange method? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Which ONE of these ballast water treatment systems may produce hydrogen as an unwanted by-product?
ANSWER:

Which ballast water exchange methods can cause extra stresses on the hull? Select the TWO best answers.
ANSWER:

Which of these factors has the greatest effect on the operation of a ballast water treatment system using Ultra-Violet light?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes ballast water exchange by the Sequential method?
ANSWER:

Which one of the following best describes ballast water exchange by the Dilution method? Select the ONE best answer.
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0502 – Human behaviours, How did that happen?

According to this module, how are the twelve generally recognised human factor weaknesses known?
ANSWER:

According to this module, what is the BEST way to act when a lack of resources is recognised?
ANSWER:

According to this module, what is the BEST way to avoid complacency?
ANSWER:

According to this module, what is the BEST way to be part of an effective team undertaking a work task?
ANSWER:

According to this module, what is the BEST way to overcome a lack of assertiveness?
ANSWER:

According to this module, what is the best way to overcome a lack of awareness?
ANSWER:

According to this module, which of the following does NOT describe a type of human error?
ANSWER:

Is the following statement about norms true or false? ‘If you know something is safe practice, stick to it.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘All stress is negative and should be avoided.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘If you want to avoid distractions while working on a safety critical task, erect barriers and place signs to ensure you are not interrupted.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘Stress and illness are examples of external stimuli.’
ANSWER:

What should you do if you feel fatigued while working?
ANSWER:

Which option BEST completes the following sentence? ‘Action errors…’
ANSWER:

Which option BEST completes the following sentence? ‘Ensure effective communication by making sure you understand your instructions. If you are unclear…’
ANSWER:

Which option BEST completes the following sentence? ‘Mistakes…’
ANSWER:

Which option BEST completes the following sentence? ‘The term ‘human behaviour’…’
ANSWER:

Which option BEST completes the following sentence? ‘Thinking errors…’
ANSWER:

Which option BEST completes the following sentence? ‘Violations…’
ANSWER:

Which option BEST completes the following sentence? ‘When you lack knowledge…’
ANSWER:

Which option BEST completes the following statement regarding pressure? ‘As soon as you recognise that a deadline will not be achieved…’
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 0513 – Onboard paint maintenance, Paint preparation and application

Can any curing agent be used in a 2-component product? Select the most suitable answer.
ANSWER:

How do you know that a paint coating is the required thickness?
ANSWER:

What are ‘stripe coats’?
ANSWER:

What does the term ‘walk-on dry’ mean?
ANSWER:

What is the Relative Humidity level above which it is generally considered that paint cannot be successfully applied?
ANSWER:

What is the highest recommended atmospheric temperature at which paint can be successfully applied without risking the solvent evaporating too quickly?
ANSWER:

What is the recommended method of mixing larger quantities of paint?
ANSWER:

What is ‘induction time’?
ANSWER:

What is ‘pot life’?
ANSWER:

Where do you find information on the mixing ratio when you are using a two-component paint?
ANSWER:

Which brush type is best suited for hard-to-reach and less accessible locations?
ANSWER:

Seagull CBT 4091 – TECDIS

How are wheel-over points represented on a route leg?
ANSWER:

How can an operator easily check to see the last chart cell update?
ANSWER:

How can information be found on the version of the IHO ‘Presentation Library’ used by TECDIS?
ANSWER:

How does TECDIS tell the operator that the data from the navigational system has integrity?
ANSWER:

How is it possible to tell that the GPS sensor information has integrity?
ANSWER:

If THREE short bleep sounds are heard coming from a TECDIS, what does this indicate?
ANSWER:

If TWO short bleep sounds are heard coming from a TECDIS, what does this indicate?
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘A user inserted object can be adjusted using the window opened for a pick report.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘It is possible to have only official ENC charts displayed on the TECDIS screen.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘It is possible to switch off the look ahead danger detection sector.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘Latitude and longitude values can be used to adjust a waypoint position.’
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘TECDIS software should never be upgraded’.
ANSWER:

Is the following statement true or false? ‘The own-ship ‘Look Ahead’ danger detection system is always active on the TECDIS’.
ANSWER:

Select the answer that best completes the following statement. ‘On switch on, TECDIS will automatically load…’
ANSWER:

Select the answer that best completes the following statement. ‘To obtain information on the chart cell being displayed…’
ANSWER:

Select the answer that best completes the following statement. ‘To see the ENC chart updates…’
ANSWER:

Select the answer that correctly completes the following statement. ‘A sleeping AIS target is…’
ANSWER:

Select the answer that correctly completes the following statement. ‘A ‘User’ display…’
ANSWER:

What colour is a route being modified on the chart screen?
ANSWER:

What colour is a selected when an active route is shown on the chart screen?
ANSWER:

What do the following icons seen on the toolbar represent?
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What does the following icon seen on the toolbar represent?
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What happens when a left click is made on the illustrated toolbar button?
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What happens when a right click is made on the illustrated toolbar button?
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What happens when the illustrated button from the toolbar is pressed?
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What happens when the ‘Show’ button located in the ‘Alerts’ window is pressed?
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What information is seen when the ‘Details’ button is pressed in the ‘Log’ tab?
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What is important for the settings of the own-ship ‘Look Ahead’ danger detection system?
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What is indicated by an alert seen in an orange colour?
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What is represented by the ‘Drag’ figure seen in the anchor conning display?
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What is the black arrow seen at the edge of the chart screen?
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What is the correct way of loading C-Map Jeppesen charts onto the TECDIS computer?
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What is the easiest way of removing AIS targets from the chart screen?
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What is the significance of the orange line and circle seen in the following illustration?
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What is the value of the safety contour set when ‘Harbour’ mode is selected?
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What is this window used for?
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Where is the setting for the value of the safety contour?
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Where is the ‘Toolbar’ located on the ECDIS screen?
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Where on the screen is there a control for the three TECDIS screen brightness settings?
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Which answer correctly completes the following statement? ‘If the own-ship ‘Look Ahead’ danger detection sector touches a user inserted danger area…’
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Why are some of the chart cell borders seen in this illustration coloured magenta?
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Why has the background colour changed to grey on some of the lines in this alert list?
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Why is the route seen in this illustration shown in a magenta colour?
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Why might an operator be unable to set a very low value for the safety depth contour when TECDIS is running?
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With official ENC chart cells, what should be loaded onto the TECDIS computer before they can be seen?
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